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NEW QUESTION # 17
Before signing the contract with the proposed vendor, concerns have been raised over future price increases.
The internal business units, however, insist that the agreement with the vendor must take place as a result of the vendor evaluation process. What is the likely action to take?
- A. Include contractual terms
- B. Ignore the business units and change vendor
- C. Re-tender the project
- D. Sign the contract
Answer: A
Explanation:
Concerns about future price increases can be addressed byincluding contractual terms(B) in the agreement to limit or regulate price escalations (e.g., fixed pricing, escalation clauses, or review mechanisms). This approach balances the business units' insistence on proceeding with the selected vendor (based on a thorough evaluation) while mitigating financial risks. According tovendor management best practices, contracts should include clear terms to protect against unforeseen cost increases, ensuring alignment with business objectives.
* Ignore the business units and change vendor (A):Contradicts the evaluation process and business units' decision, risking misalignment.
* Sign the contract (C):Ignores the price increase concern, potentially exposing the organization to financial risk.
* Re-tender the project (D):Unnecessary, as the vendor was selected through evaluation; contractual terms can address the concern without restarting the process.
Reference:EPI CITM study guide, under Vendor Selection/Management, likely discusses contract negotiation strategies, emphasizing risk mitigation through contractual terms. Check sections on vendor contracts or procurement.
NEW QUESTION # 18
Controls to manage risk have been implemented and evaluated successfully. Risks are now at the level which the organization is willing to accept. What is the name of this risk?
- A. Reduced risk
- B. Lowered risk
- C. Residual risk
- D. Modified risk
Answer: C
Explanation:
Inrisk management, after controls are implemented to mitigate risks, the remaining risk that the organization is willing to accept is calledresidual risk(C). According to frameworks likeISO/IEC 27001andCOBIT, residual risk represents the level of risk that persists after applying controls, deemed acceptable based on the organization's risk appetite. For example, if a control reduces the likelihood or impact of a threat (e.g., data breach), the remaining exposure is the residual risk, which the organization monitors but does not further mitigate unless necessary.
* Reduced risk (A):Not a standard term; implies a general decrease but lacks specificity.
* Lowered risk (B):Similar to reduced risk, not a recognized term in risk management frameworks.
* Modified risk (D):Implies risk alteration but is not a standard term for post-control risk levels.
Residual risk is a critical concept in risk management, ensuring organizations understand and accept the remaining exposure after mitigation efforts.
Reference:EPI CITM study guide, under Risk Management, likely references ISO/IEC 27001 or COBIT, emphasizing residual risk in risk assessment and treatment processes. Check sections on risk management frameworks or risk evaluation.
NEW QUESTION # 19
From the list below, which activity is not considered to be an activity in the software development phase?
- A. Implementation
- B. Code writing
- C. Testing
- D. Documenting
Answer: A
Explanation:
In theSoftware Development Life Cycle (SDLC), thedevelopment phasetypically includescode writing(A), testing(B), anddocumenting(C) to build and verify the software.Implementation(D) is part of the deployment phase, where the software is installed and made operational in the production environment, not part of development.
Reference:EPI CITM study guide, under Application Management, likely covers SDLC phases, distinguishing development from implementation. Refer to sections on software development or application lifecycle management.
NEW QUESTION # 20
Senior management requests a service requirement analysis to justify the need for a vendor. During the analysis, it is concluded that the internal IT provider has insufficient manpower and lacks the skills to deliver the work required. Which gaps are identified?
- A. Technical and organizational
- B. Financial and organizational
- C. Financial and technical
Answer: A
Explanation:
The analysis identifiesinsufficient manpower(a staffing issue) andlack of skills(a capability issue) within the internal IT provider. These gaps correspond toorganizational(manpower, related to staffing and resource allocation) andtechnical(skills, related to expertise and technical capabilities) deficiencies (B).
* Financial and organizational (A):Financial gaps (e.g., budget constraints) are not mentioned in the scenario.
* Financial and technical (C):Financial issues are not indicated; the focus is on manpower and skills.
According tovendor management frameworks, identifying gaps in internal capabilities (e.g., staffing and technical expertise) justifies outsourcing to a vendor to fill these deficiencies.
Reference:EPI CITM study guide, under Vendor Selection/Management, likely covers service requirement analysis and gap identification. Check sections on vendor justification or capability assessment.
NEW QUESTION # 21
Senior management is concerned fraudulent activities may take place during large financial transactions. To reduce the risk of fraud, it expects the proper controls to be in place. Which security principle is in need of the highest attention?
- A. Integrity
- B. Availability
- C. Confidentiality
- D. Reliability
Answer: A
Explanation:
To reduce the risk of fraud in large financial transactions, the security principle ofintegrity(C) requires the highest attention.Integrity, as perISO/IEC 27001's CIA triad (Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability), ensures that data is accurate, complete, and unaltered. Fraud often involves manipulating transaction data, so controls like data validation, checksums, or audit trails are critical to maintain integrity and prevent unauthorized changes.
* Confidentiality (A):Protects data from unauthorized access, less directly related to fraud prevention.
* Availability (B):Ensures system access, not the primary concern for fraud.
* Reliability (D):Not a standard CIA triad principle; may relate to system performance but not fraud.
Reference:EPI CITM study guide, under Information Security Management, likely references the CIA triad, emphasizing integrity for fraud prevention. Check sections on security principles or fraud controls.
NEW QUESTION # 22
The introduction of a security awareness program has resulted in a quick decrease in security incidents. Eight months later, security incidents are showing a sudden increase, and the blame is put on a non-functioning security awareness program. What is most likely the cause?
- A. Lack of resources for instructor-led sessions
- B. Insufficient budget
- C. Scope of the program is too narrow, not covering all areas of interest
- D. Message materials are few and static, and renewal is not taking place
Answer: D
Explanation:
Security awareness programs require ongoing engagement to remain effective. If security incidents decrease initially but increase after eight months, the most likely cause is thatmessage materials are few and static, and renewal is not taking place(C). Static content becomes outdated or ignored over time, reducing its impact. Regular updates, new campaigns, and varied delivery methods (e.g., videos, quizzes) are essential to maintain employee awareness and adapt to evolving threats, as perISO/IEC 27001orNISTsecurity awareness guidelines.
* Insufficient budget (A):While budget constraints could limit program scope, there's no evidence in the scenario to suggest this is the primary issue.
* Scope too narrow (B):A narrow scope might limit effectiveness initially, but the initial success suggests the scope was adequate; the issue is sustaining engagement.
* Lack of resources for instructor-led sessions (D):Instructor-led sessions are one delivery method, but the core issue is likely outdated content rather than delivery format.
Reference:EPI CITM study guide, under Information Security Management, likely discusses security awareness program maintenance, emphasizing the need for regular content updates. Refer to sections on security awareness or human factors in security.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Whilst creating the budget for the project, stakeholders demand that the project manager submits a budget proposal as accurate as possible, supported by a Work/Product Breakdown Structure (WBS/PBS). What is the preferred budget estimation?
- A. Analogous estimate
- B. Rough Order of Magnitude (ROM)
- C. Bottom-up estimate
- D. Budget estimate
Answer: C
Explanation:
For a budget proposal that must beas accurate as possibleand supported by aWork Breakdown Structure (WBS)orProduct Breakdown Structure (PBS), thebottom-up estimate(A) is preferred. This method involves estimating costs for each task or deliverable in the WBS/PBS, then aggregating them to calculate the total budget. According toPMBOK, bottom-up estimation leverages detailed data, ensuring high accuracy, especially when a WBS is available.
* Rough Order of Magnitude (ROM) (B):A high-level estimate with low accuracy (±50%), used early in projects, not suitable for detailed budgeting.
* Analogous estimate (C):Relies on historical data from similar projects, less accurate than bottom-up when detailed WBS data exists.
* Budget estimate (D):A general term, not a specific technique, and less precise than bottom-up.
Reference:EPI CITM study guide, under Project Management, likely references PMBOK's cost estimation techniques, emphasizing bottom-up for accurate budgeting. Refer to sections on project cost management or budgeting.
NEW QUESTION # 24
During Post Implementation Review (PIR) of changes, it is lately concluded that an unusual high number of changes failed to meet their objectives. What is the most likely cause of this?
- A. Change Advisory Board (CAB) meetings are not taking place
- B. Lack of effort in assessing and evaluating change requests
- C. Insufficient resources for change implementation
- D. Insufficient budget allocation
Answer: B
Explanation:
A high failure rate of changes duringPost Implementation Review (PIR)inITIL's change management process suggests a deficiency in theassessment and evaluation of change requests(A). Proper assessment involves analyzing risks, impacts, and feasibility before approving changes. If this step is inadequate (e.g., overlooking conflicts or underestimating impacts), changes are more likely to fail, as they may not align with objectives or be poorly planned.
* Insufficient resources (B):May cause delays but is less directly tied to failed objectives compared to poor assessment.
* CAB meetings not taking place (C):The CAB reviews changes, but the scenario doesn't indicate meetings are absent; poor assessment can occur even with CAB involvement.
* Insufficient budget (D):May limit implementation but is less likely the primary cause of failed objectives.
Reference:EPI CITM study guide, under Service Management, likely references ITIL's change management process, emphasizing the importance of change assessment. Check sections on change management or PIR.
NEW QUESTION # 25
In vendor selection, what is the most important reason for a reference check?
- A. To obtain financial information for vendor negotiation
- B. To independently verify and validate a vendor's claim
- C. To identify customers not mentioned on the reference list
- D. To verify products by other customers
Answer: B
Explanation:
The most important reason for areference checkinvendor selectionis toindependently verify and validate a vendor's claim(A). Reference checks involve contacting the vendor's previous or current clients to confirm claims about performance, reliability, and service quality, ensuring the vendor can meet contractual obligations. This aligns withvendor management best practicesto mitigate risks by validating vendor credibility.
* Verify products by other customers (B):Too narrow; reference checks focus on overall performance, not just products.
* Obtain financial information (C):Financial data is obtained through financial due diligence, not reference checks.
* Identify customers not mentioned (D):Not a primary goal; the focus is on validating provided references.
Reference:EPI CITM study guide, under Vendor Selection/Management, likely covers due diligence processes, emphasizing reference checks for validation. Check sections on vendor evaluation or due diligence.
NEW QUESTION # 26
A selection process for new IT staff has started. The Human Resource department has requested to follow the corporate staff hiring protocol. One mandatory item to be included is additional screening. What is verified by doing this?
- A. Criminal record
- B. Salary demands
- C. Educational level
- D. Number of years working experience
Answer: A
Explanation:
In corporate hiring protocols,additional screeningtypically refers to background checks beyond basic qualifications, such as verifying a candidate'scriminal record. This is critical for IT roles, where employees may have access to sensitive systems and data, ensuring trustworthiness and compliance with security policies.
Salary demands (A) are negotiated during the hiring process, not screened. Number of years of experience (B) and educational level (D) are verified through resumes and standard checks, not typically classified as
"additional screening," which focuses on security-related checks like criminal records.
Reference:EPI CITM study guide, under IT Organization, likely covers hiring protocols and security considerations, emphasizing background checks for IT staff. Check sections on human resource management or information security management.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Vendor management meetings take place several times per year. What is the main objective for these meetings?
- A. Verify if the vendor continues to meet the requirements of the contract, supporting the business processes
- B. Explore improvement programs
- C. Identify possible price increases
- D. Discuss improvement programs
Answer: A
Explanation:
The main objective ofvendor management meetingsis toverify if the vendor continues to meet the requirements of the contract, supporting the business processes(C). These meetings, as part ofvendor management frameworks, ensure that the vendor's performance aligns with contractual obligations, service level agreements (SLAs), and business needs. They involve reviewing service delivery, compliance, and any issues affecting business processes.
* Explore improvement programs (A):A secondary goal, as improvements may arise from performance reviews.
* Identify possible price increases (B):Price discussions may occur, but they are not the primary focus.
* Discuss improvement programs (D):Similar to A, this is a potential outcome but not the main objective.
Reference:EPI CITM study guide, under Vendor Selection/Management, likely covers vendor performance monitoring and contract compliance. Check sections on vendor management or SLA monitoring.
NEW QUESTION # 28
The new system (application) is ready for adoption (implementation). The customer is concerned that an instant change-over from the current system to the new system will create a large impact on the user base.
You are requested to propose an approach for adoption. Which of the items listed below is recommended?
- A. Coordinated
- B. Parallel
- C. Phased
- D. Big bang
Answer: B
Explanation:
When implementing a new system, the customer's concern about a large impact on the user base suggests the need for a low-risk, controlled adoption strategy. Inapplication management, theparalleladoption approach (B) involves running both the old and new systems simultaneously for a period, allowing users to transition gradually while ensuring the new system functions correctly. This minimizes disruption, as the old system remains operational as a fallback if issues arise with the new system.
* Big bang (A):This approach involves switching entirely to the new system at once, which is high-risk and likely to cause significant disruption, especially for a concerned user base. It's unsuitable here due to the potential for widespread impact.
* Coordinated (C):This is not a standard term in application deployment strategies. It may imply a managed transition but lacks the specificity of parallel or phased approaches.
* Phased (D):This involves rolling out the new system incrementally (e.g., by department or module), which reduces risk but doesn't provide the same level of safety as parallel, where both systems run concurrently to ensure continuity.
Theparallelapproach is ideal for mitigating risks during a critical system transition, as it allows validation of the new system's performance while maintaining business continuity. According toITILorSDLCframeworks, parallel adoption is often recommended for mission-critical systems to ensure stability and user acceptance.
Reference:EPI CITM study guide, under Application Management, likely discusses system implementation strategies within the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) or ITIL's service asset and configuration management. Refer to sections on application deployment, transition planning, or change management for details on parallel adoption.
NEW QUESTION # 29
One of the company's assets is valued at $200,000.00. Based on historical data, the exposure factor is 25%, and the Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) is calculated at $100,000.00. What is the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)?
- A. 0.4
- B. 0
- C. 1
Answer: B
Explanation:
Inrisk management, theAnnual Loss Expectancy (ALE)is calculated as:
ALE = Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) × Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO), whereSLE = Asset Value × Exposure Factor (EF).
Given:
* Asset Value = $200,000
* Exposure Factor (EF) = 25% = 0.25
* ALE = $100,000
Calculate SLE:
SLE = Asset Value × EF = $200,000 × 0.25 = $50,000
Calculate ARO:
ALE = SLE × ARO
$100,000 = $50,000 × ARO
ARO = $100,000 ÷ $50,000 = 2
Thus, theAnnualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)is2(C), meaning the incident is expected to occur twice per year.
* 0.4 (A):Incorrect; implies a lower frequency (0.4 times per year).
* 1 (B):Incorrect; would yield an ALE of $50,000, not $100,000.
Reference:EPI CITM study guide, under Risk Management, likely covers quantitative risk analysis, including ALE, SLE, and ARO calculations. Check sections on risk assessment or quantitative analysis.
NEW QUESTION # 30
The project brief/project charter is created. Which of the following is not part of it?
- A. Detailed planning
- B. Quality expectations
- C. Summary budget
- D. High-level risk
Answer: A
Explanation:
Theproject charter(or project brief) is a high-level document created during theinitiation phaseof a project, as defined byPMBOK(Project Management Body of Knowledge). It outlines the project's purpose, objectives, scope, and key elements but does not includedetailed planning(A), which occurs during the planning phase after the charter is approved. The charter typically includes:
* High-level risks (B):Identifies major risks to provide early awareness.
* Summary budget (C):Provides an initial cost estimate for approval.
* Quality expectations (D):Defines high-level quality requirements or standards.
Detailed planning, such as creating a detailed Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) or schedule, is part of the project management plan developed later, not the charter.
Reference:EPI CITM study guide, under Project Management, likely references PMBOK's project initiation processes, detailing the components of a project charter. Refer to sections on project initiation or project charter development.
NEW QUESTION # 31
When selecting a new vendor, continuity needs to be guaranteed as much as possible. At a minimum, which criteria are considered?
- A. Head count, support, and financial stability
- B. Scope, maintenance, and price
- C. Price, training, and support
- D. Terms and conditions, maintenance, and terms of engagement
Answer: A
Explanation:
To ensurecontinuityin vendor selection, the key criteria includehead count(vendor's staffing capacity to deliver services),support(availability of ongoing technical and operational support), andfinancial stability (ensuring the vendor remains viable to provide services long-term). These factors directly impact the vendor's ability to maintain service delivery without interruptions, which is critical for business continuity.
* Scope, maintenance, and price (A):Scope and price are important but don't directly ensure continuity; maintenance is a subset of support.
* Terms and conditions, maintenance, and terms of engagement (B):These are contractual elements, but they don't fully address operational continuity like staffing or financial stability.
* Price, training, and support (C):Training is less critical for continuity compared to staffing capacity or financial health.
According tovendor management frameworks, continuity is ensured by evaluating the vendor's operational capacity and long-term reliability, making head count, support, and financial stability the minimum criteria.
Reference:EPI CITM study guide, under Vendor Selection/Management, likely covers vendor evaluation criteria, emphasizing continuity factors. Check sections on vendor due diligence or service continuity.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Business is changing fast, resulting in the need to formally appoint a new staff member responsible for guiding the process in a controlled manner. Which role does apply?
- A. Change Manager
- B. Business Relationship Manager
- C. Service Level Manager
- D. Risk Manager
Answer: A
Explanation:
In a fast-changing business environment, aChange Manager(D) is responsible for guiding the change process in a controlled manner. According toITIL, the Change Manager oversees the change management process, ensuring that changes to IT services or infrastructure are assessed, approved, and implemented with minimal disruption to business operations. This role is critical when rapid business changes require structured control to maintain stability and alignment with organizational goals.
* Risk Manager (A):Focuses on identifying and mitigating risks, not directly managing change processes.
* Service Level Manager (B):Ensures service levels meet agreed standards, focusing on service delivery rather than change control.
* Business Relationship Manager (C):Manages relationships with business stakeholders to align IT services with needs, not specifically change processes.
The Change Manager's role, as defined in ITIL's change management framework, is essential for controlling the pace and impact of changes in a dynamic environment.
Reference:EPI CITM study guide, under Service Management, likely references ITIL's change management processes, detailing the Change Manager's responsibilities. Check sections on ITIL change management or service transition.
NEW QUESTION # 33
In project management, what is the objective of a 'lessons learned' report?
- A. To identify all risks that occurred during the project
- B. To inform the project owner with the overall achievement of the project's objectives
- C. To establish accountability for the mistakes being made in the project
- D. Bringing forward positive and negative elements with the intent to benefit future projects
Answer: D
Explanation:
Alessons learned reportin project management is designed to document both positive and negative experiences from a project to improve future projects. According to theProject Management Institute (PMI) and frameworks like PMBOK, the purpose is to capture insights, successes, challenges, and recommendations to enhance processes, avoid repeating mistakes, and replicate successes in future initiatives.
Option A focuses only on reporting achievements, which is too narrow. Option B emphasizes accountability for mistakes, which is not the primary goal, as the report aims to improve rather thanblame. Option C is incorrect because identifying risks is part of risk management, not the primary focus of lessons learned.
Option D correctly captures the intent to benefit future projects by analyzing both positive and negative aspects.
Reference:EPI CITM study guide, under Project Management, likely references PMBOK or similar frameworks, specifically the "Close Project or Phase" process, where lessons learned are documented. Check the section on project closure or knowledge management.
NEW QUESTION # 34
What is the correct sequence of activities for a risk assessment?
- A. Identify - analyse - evaluate - treatment - monitor and review
- B. Monitor and review - establish context - identify - evaluate - treatment
- C. Establish context - identify - analyse - evaluate - treatment
- D. Communication - establish context - analyse - treatment - monitor and review
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct sequence for arisk assessment, as perISO 31000andISO/IEC 27001, is:Establish context - identify - analyse - evaluate - treatment(C).
* Establish context:Define the scope, objectives, and criteria for the risk assessment (e.g., organizational goals, assets, and risk appetite).
* Identify:Identify potential risks (e.g., threats and vulnerabilities) that could impact objectives.
* Analyse:Assess the likelihood and impact of identified risks to determine their severity.
* Evaluate:Compare risks against risk criteria to prioritize them for treatment.
* Treatment:Implement controls or strategies to mitigate, avoid, transfer, or accept risks.
* Option A:Incorrect, as "monitor and review" is a post-treatment step, not the starting point.
* Option B:Incorrect, as "communication" is not a distinct step in risk assessment; it's embedded throughout.
* Option D:Incorrect, as it skips "establish context," which is essential for defining the assessment's scope.
This sequence ensures a structured, systematic approach to risk assessment, aligning with organizational objectives.
Reference:EPI CITM study guide, under Risk Management, likely references ISO 31000 or ISO/IEC 27001 for risk assessment processes. Check sections on risk assessment methodologies or risk management lifecycle.
NEW QUESTION # 35
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