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To prepare for the ECCouncil 212-82 Exam, candidates can take advantage of the various study materials and resources provided by ECCouncil. These include official study guides, online courses, practice exams, and virtual labs. It is recommended that candidates have at least two years of experience in IT before attempting the exam. With the increasing number of cyber attacks, the demand for certified cybersecurity technicians is on the rise and passing the ECCouncil 212-82 Exam is an excellent way to demonstrate one's expertise in the field.

 

NEW QUESTION # 82
Steve, a network engineer, was tasked with troubleshooting a network issue that is causing unexpected packet drops. For this purpose, he employed a network troubleshooting utility to capture the ICMP echo request packets sent to the server. He identified that certain packets are dropped at the gateway due to poor network connection.
Identify the network troubleshooting utility employed by Steve in the above scenario.

• A. traceroute
• B. dnsenurn
• C. arp
• D. ipconfig

Answer: A

Explanation:
Traceroute is the network troubleshooting utility employed by Steve in the above scenario. Traceroute is a utility that traces the route of packets from a source host to a destination host over a network. Traceroute sends ICMP echo request packets with increasing TTL (Time to Live) values and records the ICMP echo reply packets from each intermediate router or gateway along the path. Traceroute can help identify the network hops, latency, and packet loss between the source and destination hosts . Dnsenum is a utility that enumerates DNS information from a domain name or an IP address. Arp is a utility that displays and modifies the ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) cache of a host. Ipconfig is a utility that displays and configures the IP (Internet Protocol) settings of a host.

NEW QUESTION # 83
Stella purchased a smartwatch online using her debit card. After making payment for the product through the payment gateway, she received a transaction text message with a deducted and available balance from her bank.
Identify the information security element that ensures that Stella's transaction status is immediately reflected in her bank account in this scenario.

• A. Availability
• B. Non-repudiation
• C. Confidentiality
• D. Integrity

Answer: A

Explanation:
Availability is the information security element that ensures that Stella's transaction status is immediately reflected in her bank account in this scenario. Information security is the practice of protecting information and information systems from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction. Information security can be based on three fundamental principles:
confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Confidentiality is the principle that ensures that information is accessible only to authorized parties and not disclosed to unauthorized parties.
Integrity is the principle that ensures that information is accurate, complete, and consistent and not altered or corrupted by unauthorized parties. Availability is the principle that ensures that information and information systems are accessible and usable by authorized parties when needed. In the scenario, Stella purchased a smartwatch online using her debit card. After making payment for the product through the payment gateway, she received a transaction text message with a deducted and available balance from her bank. This means that her transaction status was immediately reflected in her bank account, which indicates that availability was ensured by her bank's information system.

NEW QUESTION # 84
Kayden successfully cracked the final round of interviews at an organization. After a few days, he received his offer letter through an official company email address. The email stated that the selected candidate should respond within a specified time. Kayden accepted the opportunity and provided an e-signature on the offer letter, then replied to the same email address. The company validated the e-signature and added his details to their database. Here, Kayden could not deny the company's message, and the company could not deny Kayden's signature.
Which of the following information security elements was described in the above scenario?

• A. Availability
• B. Non-repudiation
• C. Confidentiality
• D. Integrity

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is B, as it describes the information security element that was described in the above scenario. Non-repudiation is an information security element that ensures that a party cannot deny sending or receiving a message or performing an action. In the above scenario, non-repudiation was described, as Kayden could not deny company's message, and company could not deny Kayden's signature. Option A is incorrect, as it does not describe the information security element that was described in the above scenario. Availability is an information security element that ensures that authorized users can access and use information and resources when needed. In the above scenario, availability was not described, as there was no mention of access or use of information and resources. Option C is incorrect, as it does not describe the information security element that was described in the above scenario. Integrity is an information security element that ensures that information and resources are accurate and complete and have not been modified by unauthorized parties. In the above scenario, integrity was not described, as there was no mention of accuracy or completeness of information and resources. Option D is incorrect, as it does not describe the information security element that was described in the above scenario. Confidentiality is an information security element that ensures that information and resources are protected from unauthorized access and disclosure. In the above scenario, confidentiality was not described, as there was no mention of protection or disclosure of information and resources.

NEW QUESTION # 85
Hayes, a security professional, was tasked with the implementation of security controls for an industrial network at the Purdue level 3.5 (IDMZ). Hayes verified all the possible attack vectors on the IDMZ level and deployed a security control that fortifies the IDMZ against cyber-attacks.
Identify the security control implemented by Hayes in the above scenario.

• A. Point-to-point communication
• B. Anti-DoS solution
• C. MAC authentication
• D. Use of authorized RTU and PLC commands

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 86
Anderson, a security engineer, was Instructed to monitor all incoming and outgoing traffic on the organization's network to identify any suspicious traffic. For this purpose, he employed an analysis technique using which he analyzed packet header fields such as IP options, IP protocols, IP fragmentation flags, offset, and identification to check whether any fields are altered in transit.
Identify the type of attack signature analysis performed by Anderson in the above scenario.

• A. Content-based signature analysis
• B. Atomic-signature-based analysis
• C. Composite-signature-based analysis
• D. Context-based signature analysis

Answer: A

Explanation:
Content-based signature analysis is the type of attack signature analysis performed by Anderson in the above scenario. Content-based signature analysis is a technique that analyzes packet header fields such as IP options, IP protocols, IP fragmentation flags, offset, and identification to check whether any fields are altered in transit.
Content-based signature analysis can help detect attacks that manipulate packet headers to evade detection or exploit vulnerabilities . Context-based signature analysis is a technique that analyzes packet payloads such as application data or commands to check whether they match any known attack patterns or signatures.
Atomic-signature-based analysis is a technique that analyzes individual packets to check whether they match any known attack patterns or signatures. Composite-signature-based analysis is a technique that analyzes multiple packets or sessions to check whether they match any known attack patterns or signatures.

NEW QUESTION # 87
An MNC hired Brandon, a network defender, to establish secured VPN communication between the company's remote offices. For this purpose, Brandon employed a VPN topology where all the remote offices communicate with the corporate office but communication between the remote offices is denied.
Identify the VPN topology employed by Brandon in the above scenario.

• A. Hub-and-Spoke VPN topology
• B. Star topology
• C. Full-mesh VPN topology
• D. Point-to-Point VPN topology

Answer: A

Explanation:
A hub-and-spoke VPN topology is a type of VPN topology where all the remote offices communicate with the corporate office, but communication between the remote offices is denied.
The corporate office acts as the hub, and the remote offices act as the spokes. This topology reduces the number of VPN tunnels required and simplifies the management of VPN policies. A point-to-point VPN topology is a type of VPN topology where two endpoints establish a direct VPN connection. A star topology is a type of VPN topology where one endpoint acts as the central node and connects to multiple other endpoints. A full-mesh VPN topology is a type of VPN topology where every endpoint connects to every other endpoint.

NEW QUESTION # 88
Johnson, an attacker, performed online research for the contact details of reputed cybersecurity firms. He found the contact number of sibertech.org and dialed the number, claiming himself to represent a technical support team from a vendor. He warned that a specific server is about to be compromised and requested sibertech.org to follow the provided instructions. Consequently, he prompted the victim to execute unusual commands and install malicious files, which were then used to collect and pass critical Information to Johnson's machine. What is the social engineering technique Steve employed in the above scenario?

• A. Diversion theft
• B. Elicitation
• C. Quid pro quo
• D. Phishing

Answer: C

Explanation:
Quid pro quo is the social engineering technique that Johnson employed in the above scenario.
Quid pro quo is a social engineering method that involves offering a service or a benefit in exchange for information or access. Quid pro quo can be used to trick victims into believing that they are receiving help or assistance from a legitimate source, while in fact they are compromising their security or privacy. In the scenario, Johnson performed quid pro quo by claiming himself to represent a technical support team from a vendor and offering to help sibertech.org with a server issue, while in fact he prompted the victim to execute unusual commands and install malicious files, which were then used to collect and pass critical information to Johnson's machine.

NEW QUESTION # 89
A web application, www.moviescope.com. hosted on your tarqet web server is vulnerable to SQL injection attacks. Exploit the web application and extract the user credentials from the moviescope database. Identify the UID (user ID) of a user, John, in the database. Note: Vou have an account on the web application, and your credentials are samAest.
(Practical Question)

• A. 0
• B. 1
• C. 2
• D. 3

Answer: D

Explanation:
4 is the UID (user ID) of a user, John, in the database in the above scenario. A web application is a software application that runs on a web server and can be accessed by users through a web browser. A web application can be vulnerable to SQL injection attacks, which are a type of web application attack that exploit a vulnerability in a web application that allows an attacker to inject malicious SQL statements into an input field, such as a username or password field, and execute them on the database server. SQL injection can be used to bypass authentication, access or modify sensitive data, execute commands, etc. To exploit the web application and extract the user credentials from the moviescope database, one has to follow these steps:
* Open a web browser and type www.moviescope.com
* Press Enter key to access the web application.
* Enter sam as username and test as password.
* Click on Login button.
* Observe that a welcome message with username sam is displayed.
* Click on Logout button.
* Enter sam' or '1'='1 as username and test as password.
* Click on Login button.
* Observe that a welcome message with username admin is displayed, indicating that SQL injection was successful.
* Click on Logout button.
* Enter sam'; SELECT * FROM users; - as username and test as password.
* Click on Login button.
* Observe that an error message with user credentials from users table is displayed.
The user credentials from users table are:

The UID that is mapped to user john is 4

NEW QUESTION # 90
Tenda, a network specialist at an organization, was examining logged data using Windows Event Viewer to identify attempted or successful unauthorized activities. The logs analyzed by Tenda include events related to Windows security; specifically, log-on/log-off activities, resource access, and also information based on Windows system's audit policies. Identify the type of event logs analyzed by Tenda in the above scenario.

• A. System event log
• B. Security event log
• C. Setup event log
• D. Application event log

Answer: B

Explanation:
Security event log is the type of event log analyzed by Tenda in the above scenario. Windows Event Viewer is a tool that displays logged data about various events that occur on a Windows system or network. Windows Event Viewer categorizes event logs into different types based on their source and purpose. Security event log is the type of event log that records events related to Windows security; specifically, log-on/log-off activities, resource access, and also information based on Windows system's audit policies.Security event log can help identify attempted or successful unauthorized activities on a Windows system or network. Application event log is the type of event log that records events related to applications running on a Windows system, such as errors, warnings, or information messages. Setup event log is the type of event log that records events related to the installation or removal of software or hardware components on a Windows system. System event log is the type of event log that records events related to the operation of a Windows system or its components, such as drivers, services, processes, etc.

NEW QUESTION # 91
Lorenzo, a security professional in an MNC, was instructed to establish centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting for remote-access servers. For this purpose, he implemented a protocol that is based on the client-server model and works at the transport layer of the OSI model.
Identify the remote authentication protocol employed by Lorenzo in the above scenario.

• A. SNMPv3
• B. IMAPS
• C. RADIUS
• D. POP3S

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is B, as it identifies the remote authentication protocol employed by Lorenzo in the above scenario. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) for remote-access servers such as VPNs (Virtual Private Networks), wireless networks, or dial-up connections. RADIUS is based on the client-server model and works at the transport layer of the OSI model. RADIUS uses UDP (User Datagram Protocol) as its transport protocol and encrypts only user passwords in its messages. In the above scenario, Lorenzo implemented RADIUS to provide centralized AAA for remote-access servers. Option A is incorrect, as it does not identify the remote authentication protocol employed by Lorenzo in the above scenario. SNMPv3 (Simple Network Management Protocol version 3) is a protocol that provides network management and monitoring for network devices such as routers, switches, servers, or printers. SNMPv3 is based on the manager-agent model and works at the application layer of the OSI model. SNMPv3 uses UDP as its transport protocol and encrypts all its messages with AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) or DES (Data Encryption Standard). In the above scenario, Lorenzo did not implement SNMPv3 to provide network management and monitoring for network devices. Option C is incorrect, as it does not identify the remote authentication protocol employed by Lorenzo in the above scenario. POP3S (Post Office Protocol version 3 Secure) is a protocol that provides secure email access and retrieval for email clients from email servers. POP3S is based on the client-server model and works at the application layer of the OSI model. POP3S uses TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) as its transport protocol and encrypts all its messages with SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) or TLS (Transport Layer Security). In the above scenario, Lorenzo did not implement POP3S to provide secure email access and retrieval for email clients from email servers. Option D is incorrect, as it does not identify the remote authentication protocol employed by Lorenzo in the above scenario. IMAPS (Internet Message Access Protocol Secure) is a protocol that provides secure email access and management for email clients from email servers. IMAPS is based on the client-server model and works at the application layer of the OSI model. IMAPS uses TCP as its transport protocol and encrypts all its messages with SSL or TLS. In the above scenario, Lorenzo did not implement IMAPS to provide secure email access and management for email clients from email servers.

NEW QUESTION # 92
An organization divided its IT infrastructure into multiple departments to ensure secure connections for data access. To provide high-speed data access, the administrator implemented a PAID level that broke data into sections and stored them across multiple drives. The storage capacity of this RAID level was equal to the sum of disk capacities in the set. which of the following RAID levels was implemented by the administrator in the above scenario?

• A. RAID Level 3
• B. RAID Level 1
• C. RAID Level 5
• D. RAID Level 0

Answer: D

Explanation:
RAID Level 0 is the RAID level that was implemented by the administrator in the above scenario.
RAID Level 0 is also known as striping, which breaks data into sections and stores them across multiple drives. RAID Level 0 provides high-speed data access and increases performance, but it does not provide any redundancy or fault tolerance. The storage capacity of RAID Level 0 is equal to the sum of disk capacities in the set.

NEW QUESTION # 93
Walker, a security team member at an organization, was instructed to check if a deployed cloud service is working as expected. He performed an independent examination of cloud service controls to verify adherence to standards through a review of objective evidence. Further, Walker evaluated the services provided by the CSP regarding security controls, privacy impact, and performance.
Identify the role played by Walker in the above scenario.

• A. Cloud consumer
• B. Cloud provider
• C. Cloud carrier
• D. Cloud auditor

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 94
Alex, a certified security professional, works for both aggressor and defender teams. His team's main responsibility involves enhancing protection and boosting the security standards of the organization. Identify Alex's team in this scenario.

• A. Red team
• B. Purple learn
• C. White team
• D. Blue team

Answer: B

Explanation:
Purple team is the team that Alex works for in this scenario. A team is a group of people that work together to achieve a common goal or objective. A team can have different types based on its role or function in an organization or a project. A purple team is a type of team that works for both aggressor and defender teams. A purple team can be used to enhance protection and boost the security standards of an organization by performing various tasks, such as testing, evaluating, improving, or integrating the security measures implemented by the defender team or exploited by the aggressor team. In the scenario, Alex is a certified security professional who works for both aggressor and defender teams. His team's main responsibility involves enhancing protection and boosting the security standards of the organization. This means that he works for a purple team. A white team is a type of team that acts as an observer or an arbitrator between the aggressor and defender teams. A white team can be used to monitor, evaluate, or adjudicate the performance or outcome of the aggressor and defender teams by providing feedback, guidance, or rules. A blue team is a type of team that acts as a defender or a protector of an organization's network or system. A blue team can be used to prevent, detect, or respond to attacks from external or internal threats by implementing various security measures, such as firewalls, antivirus, encryption, etc. A red team is a type of team that acts as an attacker or an adversary of an organization's network or system. A red team can be used to simulate realistic attacks from external or internal threats by exploiting various vulnerabilities, weaknesses, or gaps in the organization's security posture.

NEW QUESTION # 95
Kayden successfully cracked the final round of interviews at an organization. After a few days, he received his offer letter through an official company email address. The email stated that the selected candidate should respond within a specified time. Kayden accepted the opportunity and provided an e-signature on the offer letter, then replied to the same email address. The company validated the e-signature and added his details to their database. Here, Kayden could not deny the company's message, and the company could not deny Kayden's signature. Which of the following information security elements was described in the above scenario?

• A. Availability
• B. Non-repudiation
• C. Confidentiality
• D. Integrity

Answer: B

Explanation:
It describes the information security element that was described in the above scenario. Non- repudiation is an information security element that ensures that a party cannot deny sending or receiving a message or performing an action. In the above scenario, non-repudiation was described, as Kayden could not deny company's message, and company could not deny Kayden's signature.

NEW QUESTION # 96
Walker, a security team member at an organization, was instructed to check if a deployed cloud service is working as expected. He performed an independent examination of cloud service controls to verify adherence to standards through a review of objective evidence. Further, Walker evaluated the services provided by the CSP regarding security controls, privacy impact, and performance. Identify the role played by Walker in the above scenario.

• A. Cloud consumer
• B. Cloud provider
• C. Cloud carrier
• D. Cloud auditor

Answer: D

Explanation:
A cloud auditor is a role played by Walker in the above scenario. A cloud auditor is a third party who examines controls of cloud computing service providers. Cloud auditor performs an audit to verify compliance with the standards and expressed his opinion through a report. A cloud provider is an entity that provides cloud services, such as infrastructure, platform, or software, to cloud consumers. A cloud carrier is an entity that provides connectivity and transport of cloud services between cloud providers and cloud consumers. A cloud consumer is an entity that uses cloud services for its own purposes or on behalf of another entity.

NEW QUESTION # 97
Elliott, a security professional, was appointed to test a newly developed application deployed over an organizational network using a Bastion host. Elliott initiated the process by configuring the nonreusable bastion host. He then tested the newly developed application to identify the presence of security flaws that were not yet known; further, he executed services that were not secure. identify the type of bastion host configured by Elliott in the above scenario.

• A. External services hosts
• B. Victim machines
• C. Non-routing dual-homed hosts
• D. One-box firewalls

Answer: C

Explanation:
Non-routing dual-homed hosts are the type of bastion hosts configured by Elliott in the above scenario. A bastion host is a system or device that is exposed to the public internet and acts as a gateway or a proxy for other systems or networks behind it. A bastion host can be used to provide an additional layer of security and protection for internal systems or networks from external threats and attacks . A bastion host can have different types based on its configuration or functionality. A non-routing dual-homed host is a type of bastion host that has two network interfaces: one connected to the public internet and one connected to the internal network. A non-routing dual-homed host does not allow any direct communication between the two networks and only allows specific services or applications to pass through it . A non-routing dual-homed host can be used to isolate and secure internal systems or networks from external access . In the scenario, Elliott was appointed to test a newly developed application deployed over an organizational network using a bastion host. Elliott initiated the process by configuring the non-reusable bastion host. He then tested the newly developed application to identify the presence of security flaws that were not yet known; further, he executed services that were not secure. This means that he configured a non-routing dual-homed host for this purpose. An external services host is a type of bastion host that provides external services, such as web, email, FTP, etc., to the public internet while protecting internal systems or networks from direct access . A victim machine is not a type of bastion host, but a term that describes a system or device that has been compromised or infected by an attacker or malware . A one-box firewall is not a type of bastion host, but a term that describes a firewall that performs both packet filtering and application proxy functions in one device .

NEW QUESTION # 98
A government agency's confidential Information is leaked to the public, causing significant embarrassment and damage to its reputation. The leaked data includes sensitive documents related to military operations and diplomatic communications. Considering the scenario, which threat actor group is typically employed by governments to penetrate and gather top-secret information from other government or military organizations?

• A. State-sponsored hackers
• B. Script Kiddies
• C. Criminal syndicates
• D. Industrial spies

Answer: A

Explanation:
In the scenario where a government agency's confidential information is leaked, the most likely threat actor group involved would be state-sponsored hackers:
* Motivation:
* National Interests: State-sponsored hackers are typically employed by governments to pursue national interests, which often include espionage, stealing sensitive information, and undermining the operations of other states.
* Capabilities:
* Advanced Techniques: These groups possess advanced capabilities and resources, making them highly effective in penetrating secure systems and exfiltrating valuable data.
* Examples:
* Historical Incidents: Numerous incidents, such as the attacks attributed to APT groups like APT28 (Fancy Bear) and APT29 (Cozy Bear), have been linked to state-sponsored actors targeting government and military organizations.
References:
* FireEye APT Groups: FireEye Threat Intelligence
* Mandiant M-Trends Report: Mandiant

NEW QUESTION # 99
NetSafe Corp, recently conducted an overhaul of its entire network. This refresh means that the old baseline traffic signatures no longer apply. The security team needs to establish a new baseline that comprehensively captures both normal and suspicious activities. The goal is to ensure real-time detection and mitigation of threats without generating excessive false positives. Which approach should NetSafe Corp, adopt to effectively set up this baseline?

• A. Conduct a red team exercise and base the new baseline on the identified threats.
• B. Utilize machine learning algorithms to analyze traffic for a month and generate a dynamic baseline.
• C. Continuously collect data for a week and define the average traffic pattern as the baseline.
• D. Analyze the last year's traffic logs and predict the baseline using historical data.

Answer: B

Explanation:
* Dynamic Baseline Establishment:
* Machine learning algorithms can analyze vast amounts of network traffic data over an extended period, such as a month, to understand normal and abnormal patterns dynamically.

NEW QUESTION # 100
You recently purchased a smart thermostat for your home. It allows you to control the temperature remotely through a mobile app. Considering the security of your new smart thermostat, which of the following actions would be the LEAST effective In protecting It from unauthorized access?

• A. Changing the default password for the mobile app and thermostat upon initial setup.
• B. Leaving the thermostat connected to the "Guest" Wi-Fi network in your home, which is open to all guests.
• C. Keeping the thermostat firmware updated with the latest security patches from the manufacturer.
• D. Enabling remote access to the thermostat only on your secure home Wi-Fi network.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Leaving the thermostat connected to the "Guest" Wi-Fi network, which is open to all guests, is the least effective action in protecting it from unauthorized access. Here is a detailed explanation:
* Network Segmentation:
* A guest Wi-Fi network is typically designed to provide internet access to visitors without granting access to the main network or its devices. However, if the guest network is open (i.e., no password), it poses significant security risks.

NEW QUESTION # 101
......

ECCouncil 212-82 Certified Cybersecurity Technician Certification Exam is a highly sought-after certification in the field of cybersecurity. Certified Cybersecurity Technician certification provides individuals with the necessary skills and knowledge to become proficient in cybersecurity and become a vital asset to any organization. Certified Cybersecurity Technician certification exam covers topics such as network security, ethical hacking, cybersecurity tools, and incident response.

 

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