Welcome to TestSimulate

Pass Your Next Certification Exam Fast!

Everything you need to prepare, learn & pass your certification exam easily.

365 days free updates. First attempt guaranteed success.

SK0-005 Exam Questions - Real & Updated Questions PDF [Q187-Q205]

Share

SK0-005 Exam Questions - Real & Updated Questions PDF

Pass Guaranteed Quiz 2023 Realistic Verified Free CompTIA


CompTIA Server+ certification exam, also known as SK0-005, is a popular certification exam for IT professionals who want to demonstrate their expertise in server administration. CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam certification is designed to validate the skills and knowledge required to build, maintain, troubleshoot, and support server hardware and software technologies. SK0-005 exam covers a range of topics related to server administration, including server architecture, storage systems, virtualization, security, and disaster recovery.

 

NEW QUESTION # 187
A company's IDS has identified outbound traffic from one of the web servers coming over port 389 to an outside address. This server only hosts websites. The company's SOC administrator has asked a technician to harden this server. Which of the following would be the BEST way to complete this request?

  • A. Disable port 389 on the server
  • B. Move traffic from port 389 to port 443
  • C. Move traffic from port 389 to port 637
  • D. Enable port 389 for web traffic

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
The best way to complete the request to harden the server is to disable port 389 on the server. Port 389 is the default port used by LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol), which is a protocol that allows access and modification of directory services over a network. LDAP can be used for authentication, authorization, or information retrieval purposes. However, LDAP does not encrypt its data by default, which can expose sensitive information or credentials to attackers who can intercept or modify the network traffic. Therefore, port 389 should be disabled on a web server that only hosts websites and does not need LDAP functionality.
Alternatively, port 636 can be used instead of port 389 to enable LDAPS (LDAP over SSL/TLS), which encrypts the data using SSL/TLS certificates.


NEW QUESTION # 188
A server administrator notices the /var/log/audit/audit.log file on a Linux server is rotating loo frequently. The administrator would like to decrease the number of times the leg rotates without losing any of the information in the logs. Which of the following should the administrator configure?

  • A. Move the audit. leg files to a remote syslog server.
  • B. Remove the tog rotate directive from the audit .log We configuration.
  • C. Decrease the duration of the log rotate cycle tor the audit. log file.
  • D. increase the audit. log file size in the appropriate confutation file.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The audit.log file is a file that records security-related events on a Linux server, such as user login, file access, and system commands. The logrotate utility is a tool that rotates, compresses, and deletes old log files based on certain criteria, such as size, time, or frequency. To decrease the number of times the log rotates without losing any information, the administrator should increase the audit.log file size in the appropriate configuration file, such as /etc/logrotate.conf or /etc/logrotate.d/auditd. Verified Reference: [audit.log], [logrotate]


NEW QUESTION # 189
The management team has mandated the use of data-at-rest encryption on all corporate servers. Using this encryption paradigm will ensure:

  • A. files stored on the server are protected against physical theft.
  • B. website traffic is protected while traversing the internet.
  • C. databases in use are protected from remote hackers.
  • D. attachments that are emailed from this server cannot be intercepted.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Data-at-rest encryption is a method of encrypting data while it is stored on a storage device, such as a hard drive, an SSD, or a tape library. This ensures that if the data is stolen or lost, it will be unreadable without the encryption key. Data-at-rest encryption does not protect data while it is in transit over the network, in use by the CPU or memory, or attached to an email.


NEW QUESTION # 190
The HIDS logs on a server indicate a significant number of unauthorized access attempts via USB devices at startup. Which of the following steps should a server administrator take to BEST secure the server without limiting functionality?

  • A. Change the boot order on the server and restrict console access.
    C Configure the host OS to deny login attempts via USB.
  • B. Set a BIOS/UEFI password on the server.
  • C. Disable all the USB ports on the server.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Changing the boot order on the server and restricting console access would prevent unauthorized access attempts via USB devices at startup, as the server would not boot from any external media and only authorized users could access the console. Setting a BIOS/UEFI password on the server would also help, but it could be bypassed by resetting the CMOS battery or using a backdoor password. Configuring the host OS to deny login attempts via USB would not prevent booting from a malicious USB device that could compromise the system before the OS loads. Disabling all the USB ports on the server would limit functionality, as some peripherals or devices may need to use them. References:
https://www.pcmag.com/how-to/dont-plug-it-in-how-to-prevent-a-usb-attack
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/10362/boot-order
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/10361/console-access
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/102/bios-password
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/10363/cmos-battery


NEW QUESTION # 191
A server technician installs a new NIC on a server and configures the NIC for IP connectivity. The technician then tests the connection using the pingcommand. Given the following partial output of the pingand ipconfigcommands:

Which of the following caused the issue?

  • A. Incorrect routing table
  • B. Incorrect default gateway
  • C. Duplicate IP address
  • D. DHCP misconfiguration

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 192
A server technician has been asked to upload a few files from the internal web server to the internal FTP server. The technician logs in to the web server using PuTTY, but the connection to the FTP server fails. However, the FTP connection from the technician's workstation is successful. To troubleshoot the issue, the technician executes the following command on both the web server and the workstation:
ping ftp.acme.local
The IP address in the command output is different on each machine. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the connection failure?

  • A. A misconfigured hosts.allow file
  • B. A misconfigured hosts.deny file
  • C. A misconfigured hosts file
  • D. A misconfigured firewall

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 193
A new application server has been configured in the cloud to provide access to all clients within the network.
On-site users are able to access all resources, but remote users are reporting issues connecting to the new application. The server administrator verifies that all users are configured with the appropriate group memberships. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the issue?

  • A. There are misconfigured firewall rules.
  • B. Role-based access control is misconfigured.
  • C. Telnet connections are disabled on the server.
  • D. Group policies have not been applied.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
This is the most likely cause of the issue because firewall rules can block or allow traffic based on source, destination, port, protocol, or other criteria. If the firewall rules are not configured properly, they can prevent remote users from accessing the cloud application server, while allowing on-site users to access it. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/security-overview


NEW QUESTION # 194
A company wants to deploy software to all users, Out very few of men will be using the software at any one point in time. Which of the following licensing models would be BEST lot the company?

  • A. Per concurrent user
  • B. Per site
  • C. Per core
  • D. Per instance

Answer: A

Explanation:
Per concurrent user licensing is a model that allows a fixed number of users to access the software at any one point in time. This model is best for the company that wants to deploy software to all users, but very few of them will be using the software at any one point in time. This way, the company can save money by paying only for the number of simultaneous users, rather than for every user who has access to the software. Per site licensing is a model that allows unlimited users within a specific location to use the software. Per core licensing is a model that charges based on the number of processor cores on the server where the software is installed. Per instance licensing is a model that charges based on the number of copies of the software running on different servers or virtual machines. Reference: https://www.pcmag.com/encyclopedia/term/concurrent-use-license https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1440/software-licensing


NEW QUESTION # 195
Which of the following would a systems administrator implement to ensure all web traffic is secure?

  • A. SSH
  • B. SMTP
  • C. PGP
  • D. SSL

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL): SSL and its successor Transport Layer Security (TLS) enable client and server computers to establish a secure connection session and manage encryption and decryption activities.


NEW QUESTION # 196
A storage administrator is investigating an issue with a failed hard drive. A technician replaced the drive in the storage array; however, there is still an issue with the logical volume. Which of the following best describes the NEXT step that should be completed to restore the volume?

  • A. Initialize the volume
  • B. Rebuild the volume
  • C. Replace the volume
  • D. Format the volume

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The administrator should rebuild the volume to restore it after replacing the failed hard drive. A volume is a logical unit of storage that can span across multiple physical disks. A volume can be configured with different levels of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) to provide fault tolerance and performance enhancement. When a hard drive in a RAID volume fails, the data on that drive can be reconstructed from the remaining drives using parity or mirroring techniques. However, this process requires a new hard drive to replace the failed one and a rebuild operation to copy the data from the existing drives to the new one.
Rebuilding a volume can take a long time depending on the size and speed of the drives and the RAID level.


NEW QUESTION # 197
A server administrator wants to ensure a storage array can survive the failure of two drives without the loss of dat a. Which of the following RAID levels should the administrator choose?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
RAID 6 is a level of RAID that can survive the failure of two drives without the loss of data. RAID 6 uses block-level striping with two parity blocks distributed across all member disks. RAID 6 can tolerate two simultaneous drive failures and still provide data access and redundancy. RAID 0 is a level of RAID that uses striping without parity or mirroring, and offers no fault tolerance. RAID 0 cannot survive any drive failure without data loss. RAID 1 is a level of RAID that uses mirroring without parity or striping, and offers fault tolerance by duplicating data on two or more disks. RAID 1 can survive one drive failure without data loss, but not two. RAID 5 is a level of RAID that uses block-level striping with one parity block distributed across all member disks. RAID 5 can tolerate one drive failure without data loss, but not two. Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Standard_RAID_levels


NEW QUESTION # 198
Which of the following steps in the troubleshooting theory should be performed after a solution has been implemented? (Choose two.)

  • A. Document the findings
  • B. Perform a root cause analysis
  • C. Develop a plan of action
  • D. Notify the users
  • E. Scope the issue
  • F. Escalate the issue

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
The steps in the troubleshooting theory that should be performed after a solution has been implemented are document the findings and notify the users. The troubleshooting theory is a systematic process of identifying and resolving problems or issues with a system or device. The troubleshooting theory consists of several steps that can be summarized as follows:
Identify the problem: Gather information, scope the issue, establish a theory of probable cause.
Establish a plan of action: Test the theory, determine next steps, escalate if necessary.
Implement the solution: Execute the plan, verify functionality, prevent recurrence.
Document the findings: Record actions taken, outcomes achieved, lessons learned.
Notify the users: Communicate resolution status, confirm satisfaction, provide follow-up.
Documenting the findings is an important step that helps create a record of what was done and why, what worked and what didn't, and what can be improved or avoided in the future. Documenting the findings can also help with reporting, auditing, compliance, or training purposes. Notifying the users is another important step that helps inform the affected parties of what was done and how it was resolved, confirm that the problem is fixed and that they are satisfied with the outcome, and provide any follow-up instructions or recommendations.


NEW QUESTION # 199
A server administrator receives the following output when trying to ping a local host:

Which of the following is MOST likely the issue?

  • A. VLAN
  • B. DNS
  • C. Firewall
  • D. DHCP

Answer: C

Explanation:
A firewall is a network device or software that filters and controls the incoming and outgoing traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can block or allow certain types of packets, ports, protocols, or IP addresses. The output of the ping command shows that the local host is unreachable, which means that there is no network connectivity between the source and the destination. This could be caused by a firewall that is blocking the ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) packets that ping uses to test the connectivity. Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 2.2)


NEW QUESTION # 200
A developer is creating a web application that will contain five web nodes. The developer's main goal is to ensure the application is always available to the end users. Which of the following should the developer use when designing the web application?

  • A. Network address translation
  • B. Link aggregation
  • C. Bridged networking
  • D. Round robin

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
Round robin is a load balancing technique that distributes requests among multiple web nodes in a circular order. It ensures that each web node receives an equal amount of requests and improves the availability and performance of the web application. Verified References: [Round robin], [Load balancing]


NEW QUESTION # 201
A server administrator is configuring the IP address on a newly provisioned server in the testing environment. The network VLANs are configured as follows:

The administrator configures the IP address for the new server as follows:
IP address: 192.168.1.1/24
Default gateway: 192.168.10.1
A ping sent to the default gateway is not successful. Which of the following IP address/default gateway combinations should the administrator have used for the new server?

  • A. IP address: 192.168.10.24/24
    Default gateway: 192.168.30.1
  • B. IP address: 192.168.1.2/24
    Default gateway: 192.168.10.1
  • C. IP address: 192.168.10.3/24
    Default gateway: 192.168.20.1
  • D. IP address: 192.168.10.2/24
    Default gateway: 192.168.10.1

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 202
A technician has moved a data drive from a new Windows server to an order Windows server. The hardware recognizes the drive, but the data is not visible to the OS. Which of the following is the MOST Likely cause of the issue?

  • A. The disk uses MBn.
  • B. The disk uses GPT.
  • C. The partition is formatted with ext4.
  • D. The -partition is formatted with FAT32.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
GPT (GUID Partition Table) is a partitioning scheme that allows creating partitions on large hard drives (more than 2 TB). It supports up to 128 partitions per drive and uses 64-bit addresses to locate them. However, GPT is not compatible with older versions of Windows, such as Windows XP or Windows Server 2003, which use MBR (Master Boot Record) as the partitioning scheme. If a disk uses GPT, it may not be recognized or accessible by an older Windows server. Verified References: [GPT], [MBR]


NEW QUESTION # 203
A server administrator encounters some issues with the server OS after applying monthly patches. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the administrator perform?

  • A. Implement rollback procedures.
  • B. Reboot the server.
  • C. Upgrade the drivers.
  • D. Reinstall the OS.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
This option would restore the server OS to a previous state before applying the monthly patches. This would help troubleshoot the issues caused by the patches and determine if they are compatible with the server OS.
The other options would either not address the issues, cause data loss, or require more time and resources


NEW QUESTION # 204
An administrator is troubleshooting a failure in the data center in which a server shut down/turned off when utility power was lost The server had redundant power supplies. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this failure?

  • A. Redundant power supplies require 220V power
  • B. The power supplies were not cross-connected
  • C. Both power supplies were connected to the same power feed
  • D. The UPS batteries were overcharged.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The most likely cause of this failure is that both power supplies were connected to the same power feed, which means that they both lost power when utility power was lost. To prevent this from happening, redundant power supplies should be connected to different power feeds, preferably from different sources, such as a UPS or a generator. Verified Reference: [Redundant Power Supply Best Practices]


NEW QUESTION # 205
......


CompTIA SK0-005 exam is a certification exam designed for IT professionals who want to validate their knowledge and skills in server administration. SK0-005 exam is ideal for individuals who work with servers on a daily basis and want to demonstrate their expertise in managing and maintaining server hardware, software, and security. Passing the SK0-005 exam will provide candidates with the CompTIA Server+ certification, which is recognized globally and is a valuable addition to any IT professional's resume.

 

Get to the Top with SK0-005 Practice Exam Questions: https://www.testsimulate.com/SK0-005-study-materials.html