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NCLEX-PN exam consists of multiple-choice questions that are designed to test the candidate's knowledge, skills, and abilities in a range of nursing areas. The test is divided into four categories: Safe and Effective Care Environment, Health Promotion and Maintenance, Psychosocial Integrity, and Physiological Integrity. Each category covers a range of topics related to nursing, such as infection control, medication administration, patient assessment, and communication skills. NCLEX-PN exam is designed to be challenging, and candidates must demonstrate that they have a solid understanding of the subject matter to pass. Passing the NCLEX-PN exam is a crucial step towards obtaining a license to practice as a practical nurse and pursuing a career in the healthcare field.

NCLEX-PN exam is a critical step in obtaining licensure as a practical nurse in the United States. NCLEX-PN exam is administered by the National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) and is designed to test the knowledge, skills, and abilities of individuals seeking to work as practical nurses. Passing NCLEX-PN exam is necessary to obtain a license to practice as a licensed practical nurse (LPN) or licensed vocational nurse (LVN).

Certification Path for NCLEX-RN® Examination

The NCSBN Board of Directors (BOD) reevaluates the passing standard once every three years. The criterion that the BOD uses to set the standard is the minimum level of ability required for safe and effective entrylevel nursing practice.

To assist the BOD in making this decision, they are provided with information on:

• The historical record of the passing standard with summaries of the candidate performance associated with those standards
• The results of a standard setting exercise performed by a panel of experts with the assistance of psychometricians
• Information describing the educational readiness of high school graduates who express an interest in nursing
• The results of a standard setting survey sent to educators and employers; and

Once the passing standard is set, it is applied uniformly to every examination according to the procedures laid out in the Scoring the NCLEX section. To pass the NCLEX, a candidate must perform above the passing standard. There is no fixed percentage of candidates that pass or fail each examination.

 

NEW QUESTION # 181
An assessment of the skull of a normal 10-monthold baby should identify which of the following?

• A. Overlap of cranial bones.
• B. Closure of the posterior fontanel.
• C. Ossification of the sutures.
• D. Closure of the anterior fontanel.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Explanation:
The posterior fontanel should close by the age of 2 months.

NEW QUESTION # 182
A client begins a regimen of chemotherapy. Her platelet counts fall to 98,000.
Which action is least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage?

• A. Use a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene.
• B. Avoid IM injections.
• C. Test all excreta for occult blood.
• D. Implement reverse isolation.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Section: Physiological Integrity
Explanation:
Reverse isolation does not affect the risk of hemorrhage.

NEW QUESTION # 183
The nurse is assessing an elder who the nurse suspects is being physically abused. The most important question for nurse to ask is:

• A. "How much money do you keep around the house?"
• B. "How close does your nearest relative live?"
• C. "What form of transportation do you use?"
• D. "Who provides your physical care?"

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The most common abuser is a caregiver living with the client. Research reveals that the spouse is currently the most common abuser, followed by an adult child. Psychosocial Integrity

NEW QUESTION # 184
How many temporary teeth should the nurse expect to find in a 5-year-old client's mouth?

• A. up to 32
• B. up to 10
• C. up to 20
• D. up to 15

Answer: C

Explanation:
A child can have up to 20 temporary (deciduous or baby) teeth. The first tooth usually erupts by age 6 months and the last by age 30 months. All temporary teeth usually are shed between 6 and 13 years of age.Preventionand Early Detection of Disease

NEW QUESTION # 185
A physician orders a serum creatinine for a hospitalized client. The nurse should explain to the client and his family that this test:

• A. is a better indicator of renal function than the BUN.
• B. is normal if the level is 4.0 to 5.5 mg/dl.
• C. can be elevated with increased protein intake.
• D. reflects the fluid volume status of a person.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A serum creatinine level should be 0.7 to 1.5 mg/dl, and it does not vary with increased protein intake, so it is a better indicator of renal function than the BUN.Physiological Adaptation

NEW QUESTION # 186
A client newly diagnosed with Diabetes Mellitus needs education.
Which of the following statements should the nurse include in this education?

• A. "You can eat anything you want, but no foods with sugar."
• B. "You must eliminate all salt, fat, and sugar from your diet."
• C. "You need a diet and exercise program."
• D. "You need to lose weight, so your diet must be a restricted one."

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Physiological Integrity
Explanation:
A client newly diagnosed with Diabetes Mellitus needs teaching about diet and exercise.

NEW QUESTION # 187
In the process of an annual physical exam, a client is diagnosed with Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy (BPH).
Which type of physician this client is likely to have a consult with?

• A. physiatrist
• B. urologist
• C. proctologist
• D. gynecologist

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Safe and Effective Care Environment
Explanation:
A urologist is the physician who specializes in urinary tract and prostatic disease.
A gynecologist specializes in disease of the female reproductive tract.
A physiatrist specializes in rehabilitation care.
A proctologist specializes in lower colonic digestive diseases.

NEW QUESTION # 188
Paula is a 32-year-old woman seeking evaluation and treatment of major depressive symptoms. A major nursing priority during the assessment process includes which of the following?

• A. motivation to participate in treatment
• B. presence of alcohol or other drug use
• C. meaning of current stressors
• D. possibility of self-harm

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Unless the client is first assessed for self-harm or suicide potential, the staff might not observe the necessary degree of vigilance needed in the client's environment. Physical needs are the second most critical concern with a depressive client. Though the client may be encouraged to attend group therapy as part of the treatment plan, the client's safety takes precedence. Response to medication takes time and is not an initial concern. Physiological Adaptation

NEW QUESTION # 189
Which of the following tests is commonly performed on newborns with jaundice?

• A. bilirubin
• B. magnesium
• C. prolactin
• D. blood urea nitrogen

Answer: A

Explanation:
A high bilirubin level is found with hepatic immaturity in newborns, from which jaundice results. The other choices are not.Reduction of Risk Potential

NEW QUESTION # 190
When assessing a client in the Emergency Department whose membranes have ruptured, the nurse notes that the fluid is a greenish color.
What is the cause of this greenish coloration?

• A. caput
• B. hydramnios
• C. meconium
• D. blood

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Physiological Integrity
Explanation:
Greenish amniotic fluid passed when the fetus is in a cephalic (head) presentation might indicate fetal distress.
A fetus in the breech presentation passes meconium due to compression on the intestinal tract.

NEW QUESTION # 191
A client and his family facing the end stage of a terminal illness might be best served by:

• A. Hospice.
• B. a rehabilitation center.
• C. a crisis intervention center.
• D. an extended care facility.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Hospice has the belief that more humanized alternative care for dying clients is needed than is being provided in hospitals, which focus mostly on medical cures. No matter where the care is delivered, Hospice provides a specialized interdisciplinary team of health care professionals who work together to manage client care. HealthPromotion and Maintenance

NEW QUESTION # 192
A client is 36 hours post-op a TKR surgery. 270 cc's of sero-sanguinous accumulates in the surgical drains. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Do nothing
• B. Empty the drain
• C. Remove the drain
• D. Notify the doctor

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The physician should be notified if excessive drainage is noted from the surgical site.

NEW QUESTION # 193
Which of the following values should the nurse monitor closely while a client is on total parenteral nutrition?

• A. calcium
• B. glucose
• C. cholesterol
• D. magnesium

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Explanation:
Glucose is monitored closely when a client is on total parenteral nutrition, due to high glucose concentration in the solutions. The other values are not monitored as closely.

NEW QUESTION # 194
The nurse should utilize data about which of the following to provide information about the nutritional status of a client being evaluated for malnutrition?

• A. serum lipid profile results
• B. hemoglobin A1c level
• C. fasting blood glucose level
• D. triceps skinfold measurement

Answer: D

Explanation:
Section: Physiological Integrity
Explanation:
Objective anthropometric measurements such as triceps skinfold and mid-arm circumference (MAC), along with weight, are usually used to diagnose malnutrition.
While all the other choices represent tests that might provide useful information, they also might be affected by variables other than malnutrition.

NEW QUESTION # 195
Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

• A. disability prevention.
• B. secondary prevention.
• C. tertiary prevention.
• D. primary prevention.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The three levels of prevention address disease and disability across all phases, from absence of disease and at risk for disease, to preventing further impairment. Hearing impairment associatedwith prematurity cannot be prevented by screening, but identifying the infants with hearing loss might prevent sequelae and further impairment by allowing early intervention.Safety and Infection Control

NEW QUESTION # 196
Select the method of special precautions that is accurately paired with the personal protective equipment that is minimally required in order to prevent the spread of infection.

• A. Contact precautions: Gloves.
• B. Contact precautions: Gowns, gloves and mask.
• C. Droplet precautions: Face mask.
• D. Airborne transmission precautions: Negative pressure room.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Safe and Effective Care Environment
Explanation:
The minimal personal protective equipment that is required for droplet precautions is a face mask.
Contact precautions minimally require the use of gloves and gowns; and airborne transmission precautions minimally require the use of a negative pressure room, a HEPA mask, gowns and gloves.

NEW QUESTION # 197
Narrow therapeutic index medications:

• A. are drug formulations with limited pharmacokinetic variability.
• B. have limited value and require no monitoring of blood levels.
• C. have limited potency and side effects.
• D. have less than a twofold difference in minimum toxic levels and minimum effective concentration in the blood.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The therapeutic index is the ratio between the median lethal dose and median effective dose of a drug. It provides a general indication of the margin of safety of a drug. Choice 1 is incorrect because pharmacokinetics is the process of adsorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination. Choice 2 is incorrect because narrow therapeutic index drugs require close monitoring since there is often little difference between the desired drug effect and toxicity. Choice 4 is incorrect because narrow therapeutic index have the potential for severe toxic effects with only slight increases in the dose or slight decreases in elimination. Pharmacological Therapies

NEW QUESTION # 198
A patient is currently having a petit mal seizure in the clinic on the floor.
Which of the following criteria has the highest priority in this situation?

• A. Prevent excessive movement of the extremities
• B. Call a code
• C. Provide a safe environment free of obstructions in the immediate area
• D. Contact the patient's physician

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Safe and Effective Care Environment
Explanation:
Patient safety should be the top concern about this patient.

NEW QUESTION # 199
A nurse is implementing a community awareness campaign about accidental poisoning. Which of the following should she teach in the class?

• A. The child should be taken to the ER
• B. The poison control center should be contacted
• C. The child should be given syrup of Ipecac
• D. The child should be given milk.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The poison control center should be contacted first.

NEW QUESTION # 200
A nurse assesses a 83 year-old female's venous ulcer for the second time that is located near the right medial malleolus. The wound is exhibiting purulent drainage and the patient has limited mobility in her home. Which of the options is the best course of action?

• A. Determine the patient's pulse in the right ankle.
• B. Notify the case manager of the purulent drainage.
• C. Encourage warm water soaks to the right foot.
• D. Recommend increased activity to reduce the purulent drainage.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A determination of arterial blood flow should be made, prior to encouraging increased activity, or notifying additional team members.

NEW QUESTION # 201
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