(PDF) CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam and Certification Test Engine

Use N10-008 Exam Dumps (2025 PDF Dumps) To Have Reliable N10-008 Test Engine

NEW QUESTION # 342
A customer has an attached USB printer that needs to be shared with other users. The desktop team set up printer sharing. Now, the network technician needs to obtain the necessary information about the PC and share it with other users so they can connect to the printer. Which of the following commands should the technician use to get the required information? (Choose two.)

• A. ipconfig
• B. arp
• C. tcpdump
• D. netstat
• E. hostname
• F. route

Answer: A,E

NEW QUESTION # 343
A network administrator wants to analyze attacks directed toward the company's network. Which of the following must the network administrator implement to assist in this goal?

• A. Antivirus
• B. Network segmentation
• C. A honeypot
• D. A screened subnet

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
A honeypot is a decoy system that is intentionally left vulnerable or exposed to attract attackers and divert them from the real targets. A honeypot can also be used to collect information about the attackers' techniques and motives. A network administrator can implement a honeypot to analyze attacks directed toward the company's network, as a honeypot can help identify the source, target, method, and impact of an attack, as well as provide recommendations for remediation. References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-honeypot

NEW QUESTION # 344
Which of the following is the DNS feature that controls how long a lookup is stored in cache on a server?

• A. SOA
• B. CNAME
• C. SRV
• D. TTL

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
TTL stands for Time to Live, and it is a field on DNS records that controls how long each record is valid and cached by the DNS resolver before it expires and requests a new one. The TTL value is measured in seconds, and it affects how quickly DNS changes propagate across the Internet. A lower TTL means that the DNS resolver will refresh the record more frequently, but it also increases the load on the DNS servers. A higher TTL means that the DNS resolver will cache the record longer, but it also delays the update of the record.

NEW QUESTION # 345
A network technician is installing new software on a Windows-based server in a different geographical location. Which of the following would be BEST for the technician to use to perform this task?

• A. SSH
• B. FTP
• C. RDP
• D. DNS

Answer: C

Explanation:
RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) is the best option for a network technician to use when installing new software on a Windows-based server in a different geographical location. This protocol allows the technician to connect to the server remotely and control it as if they were physically present.
References:
* Network+ N10-007 Certification Exam Objectives, Objective 2.2: Given a scenario, implement the appropriate network-based security and troubleshoot common connectivity issues.

NEW QUESTION # 346
A new company moved into a corporate center. Users in the shared lobby are experiencing disconnects on their mobile devices. Which of the following is the BEST tool a network technician could use to troubleshoot the issue?

• A. Protocol analyzer
• B. Port scanner
• C. NetFlow analyzer
• D. Wi-Fi analyzer

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 347
A company is implementing a secure remote access solution for multiple employees. Which of the following should the company use?

• A. Site-to-site VPN
• B. Client-to-site VPN
• C. Virtual desktop
• D. Remote desktop connection

Answer: B

Explanation:
A client-to-site VPN is a secure remote access solution that allows individual employees to connect to the company's network from remote locations1. This type of VPN creates a secure tunnel from the user's location to the company's network, ensuring that the data transmitted is secure and private

NEW QUESTION # 348
A technician needs to allow a device to maintain the same IP address lease based on the physical address of a network card. Which of the following should the technician use?

• A. IP address exclusion
• B. Static IP address
• C. Custom DNS server entry
• D. MAC address reservation

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 349
The lack of a formal process to grant network permissions to different profiles of employees and contractors is leading to an increasing number of security incidents. Non-uniform and overly permissive network accesses are being granted. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate method to improve the security of the environment?

• A. Deploy an RDP server to centralize the access to the network.
• B. Configure uniform ACLs to employees and NAC for contractors.
• C. Implement role-based access control.
• D. Change the default permissions to implicit deny.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The MOST appropriate method to improve the security of the environment, given the described situation, would be to implement role-based access control. Role-based access control (RBAC) is a method that assigns permissions to users based on their role in the organization. This method helps ensure that users only have the permissions they need to perform their job duties, and no more. By implementing RBAC, the organization can enforce a more uniform and controlled access to the network, reducing the risk of security incidents caused by overly permissive network accesses. The other options may help to some extent, but they do not address the underlying problem of non-uniform and overly permissive network accesses being granted.

NEW QUESTION # 350
A network administrator needs to connect two routers in a point-to-point configuration and conserve IP space.
Which of the following subnets should the administrator use?

• A. /30
• B. /26
• C. /28
• D. /24

Answer: A

Explanation:
A /30 subnet is the smallest possible subnet that can be used for a point-to-point configuration between two routers. A /30 subnet has only two usable host addresses, one for each router, and a network address and a broadcast address. A /30 subnet conserves IP space by minimizing the number of wasted addresses. A /24, /26, or /28 subnet would have more usable host addresses than needed for a point-to-point configuration and would waste IP space.
References:
* Routing Technologies - N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 2.21
* CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10

NEW QUESTION # 351
During the troubleshooting of an E1 line, the point-to-point link on the core router was accidentally unplugged and left unconnected for several hours. However, the network management team was not notified. Which of the following could have been configured to allow early detection and possible resolution of the issue?

• A. OID
• B. MIB
• C. Baselines
• D. Traps

Answer: D

Explanation:
Traps are a mechanism for network devices to send unsolicited notifications of events or alarms to a management system. They can be configured to notify the network management team of specific events, such as the unplugging of a point-to-point link on a core router. This feature allows early detection and possible resolution of issues.
MIB (Management Information Base) is a database of information that describes the management data of a device. OID (Object Identifier) is a unique identifier used to identify managed objects in the MIB.
Baselines are a standard set of measurements used to establish normal network behavior, and they are used to compare current network activity against. Baselines can be used to detect abnormal behavior, but they are not as effective as traps for early detection of specific events.

NEW QUESTION # 352
Which of the following would be BEST to use to detect a MAC spoofing attack?

• A. Internet Message Access Protocol
• B. Internet Control Message Protocol
• C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol
• D. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

Answer: C

Explanation:
A MAC spoofing attack consists of changing the MAC address of a network device (network card). A client computer can use Revers Address Resolution Protocol to request its Internet Protocol (IPv4) address and MAC address from a computer network to check its accuracy.

NEW QUESTION # 353
A desktop support department has observed slow wireless speeds for a new line of laptops using the organization's standard image. No other devices have experienced the same issue. Which of the following should the network administrator recommend troubleshooting FIRST to resolve this issue?

• A. Installing a new WAP
• B. Changing the protocol associated to the SSID
• C. Updating the device wireless drivers
• D. Increasing wireless signal power

Answer: C

Explanation:
Wireless drivers can affect the performance and compatibility of your wireless connection5. If only a new line of laptops using the organization's standard image has experienced slow wireless speeds, it could be that their wireless drivers are outdated or incompatible with the network. Updating the device wireless drivers could resolve this issue.
Wireless drivers play an important role in the performance of a wireless connection, as they control how the device interacts with the wireless network. If the laptops in question are using an outdated version of the wireless driver, it could be causing the slow speeds. The network administrator should recommend updating the device wireless drivers first to see if this resolves the issue.

NEW QUESTION # 354
A network engineer receives the following when connecting to a switch to configure a port:

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for the failure?

• A. The network engineer does not have permission to configure the device
• B. The network engineer is using the wrong protocol
• C. The switchport the engineer is trying to configure is down
• D. SNMP has been secured with an ACL

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 355
Wireless users are reporting intermittent internet connectivity. Connectivity is restored when the users disconnect and reconnect, utilizing the web authentication process each time. The network administrator can see the devices connected to the APs at all times. Which of the following steps will MOST likely determine the cause of the issue?

• A. Confirm that a valid passphrase is being used during the web authentication
• B. Check for encryption protocol mismatch on the client's wireless settings
• C. Verify the session time-out configuration on the captive portal settings
• D. Investigate for a client's disassociation caused by an evil twin AP

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
A captive portal is a web page that requires users to authenticate before they can access the internet. If the session time-out configuration is too short, users may experience intermittent internet connectivity and have to reconnect using the web authentication process each time. The network administrator can verify the session time-out configuration on the captive portal settings and adjust it if needed. References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 2.0 (Exam Number: N10-006), Domain 1.0 Network Architecture, Objective 1.8 Explain the purposes and use cases for advanced networking devices.

NEW QUESTION # 356
A technician is writing documentation regarding a company's server farm. The technician needs to confirm the server name for all Linux servers. Which of the following commands should the technician run?

• A. arp
• B. nslookup
• C. ipconfig
• D. route

Answer: B

Explanation:
The nslookup command should be run to confirm the server name for all Linux servers. Nslookup is a tool that queries DNS servers to resolve hostnames to IP addresses or vice versa. It can also provide other information about DNS records, such as MX, NS, SOA, etc. By running nslookup with the IP address of a Linux server, the technician can obtain its hostname. References:
https://www.howtogeek.com/663056/how-to-use-the-nslookup-command-on-linux/

NEW QUESTION # 357
Which of the following DNS records maps an alias to a true name?

• A. NS
• B. AAAA
• C. TXT
• D. CNAME

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
A CNAME (Canonical Name) record is a type of DNS (Domain Name System) record that maps an alias name to a canonical or true domain name. For example, a CNAME record can map blog.example.com to example.com, which means that blog.example.com is an alias of example.com. A CNAME record is useful when you want to point multiple subdomains to the same IP address, or when you want to change the IP address of a domain without affecting the subdomains1.

NEW QUESTION # 358
A wireless network was installed in a warehouse for employees to scan crates with a wireless handheld scanner. The wireless network was placed in the corner of the building near the ceiling for maximum coverage However users in the offices adjacent lo the warehouse have noticed a large amount of signal overlap from the new network Additionally warehouse employees report difficulty connecting to the wireless network from the other side of the building; however they have no issues when Ihey are near the antenna Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

• A. The wireless signal is being refracted by the warehouse's windows
• B. The wireless access points are using channels from the 5GHz spectrum
• C. The antenna's power level was set too high and is overlapping
• D. An omnidirectional antenna was used instead of a unidirectional antenna

Answer: D

Explanation:
An omnidirectional antenna was used instead of a unidirectional antenna, which is most likely the cause of the wireless network issues. An omnidirectional antenna provides wireless coverage in all directions from the antenna, which can cause signal overlap with adjacent offices and interference with other wireless networks. A unidirectional antenna, on the other hand, provides wireless coverage in a specific direction from the antenna, which can reduce signal overlap and interference and increase signal range and quality. A unidirectional antenna would be more suitable for a warehouse environment where users are located on one side of the building1. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/82068-omni-vs-direct.html 1

NEW QUESTION # 359
Which of the following should be used to manage outside cables that need to be routed to various multimode uplinks?

• A. TIA/EIA-568A patch bay
• B. Cat 6 patch panel
• C. 110 punchdown block
• D. Fiber distribution panel
• E. PDU

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 360
An organization has experienced an increase in malicious spear-phishing campaigns and wants to mitigate the risk of hyperlinks from inbound emails.
Which of the following appliances would best enable this capability?

• A. Endpoint email client
• B. Proxy server
• C. Email protection gateway
• D. DNS server
• E. Sandbox

Answer: C

Explanation:
An email protection gateway is an appliance that can filter and block malicious emails and attachments before they reach the recipients. An email protection gateway can mitigate the risk of hyperlinks from inbound emails by scanning the links for malicious content, rewriting the links to point to a safe domain, or blocking the links altogether. An email protection gateway can also perform other functions such as spam filtering, antivirus scanning, encryption, and data loss prevention. A DNS server, a proxy server, an endpoint email client, and a sandbox are not appliances that can enable this capability, as they have different purposes and functions.
Reference
1: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 304
2: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Subnetting Quiz, question 15
3: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Practice Test, question 5
4: Email Protection Gateway - N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 3.2

NEW QUESTION # 361
A technician is searching for a device that is connected to the network and has the device's physical network address. Which of the following should the technician review on the switch to locate the device's network port?

• A. MAC table
• B. VLAN tag
• C. QoS tag
• D. IP route table

Answer: A

Explanation:
To locate a device's network port on a switch, a technician should review the switch's MAC address table. The MAC address table maintains a list of MAC addresses of devices connected to each port on the switch. By checking the MAC address of the device in question, the technician can identify the port to which the device is connected.

NEW QUESTION # 362
A customer needs six usable IP addresses. Which of the following best meets this requirement?

• A. 255.255.255.224
• B. 255.255.255.240
• C. 255.255.255.128
• D. 255.255.255.192

Answer: A

Explanation:
A customer needs six usable IP addresses, which means they need a subnet that can accommodate at least six hosts, excluding the network address and the broadcast address12.
The subnet mask determines how many bits are used for the network prefix and how many bits are used for the host identifier12. The more bits are used for the network prefix, the fewer bits are available for the host identifier, and vice versa12.
The number of usable IP addresses in a subnet can be calculated by subtracting two from the number of possible host identifiers, which is 2^(number of host bits)12.
For example, a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 (/24 in CIDR notation) has 24 bits for the network prefix and 8 bits for the host identifier. Therefore, the number of usable IP addresses in this subnet is 2^8 - 2 = 25412.
The four options in the question have different subnet masks, which correspond to different numbers of usable IP addresses, as shown in the table below:
Table
Subnet mask
CIDR notation
Number of host bits
Number of usable IP addresses
255.255.255.128
/25
7
126
255.255.255.192
/26
6
62
255.255.255.224
/27
5
30
255.255.255.240
/28
4
14
Therefore, the best option that meets the customer's requirement of six usable IP addresses is C. 255.255.255.224, which has 30 usable IP addresses in the subnet12.
Reference:
1: Subnet Cheat Sheet - 24 Subnet Mask, 30, 26, 27, 29, and other IP Address CIDR Network Reference
2: Network Subnets (CIDR) and Usable IP Addresses Reference Guide

NEW QUESTION # 363
......

Certification Topics of CompTIA N10-008 Exam

• Network Troubleshooting

• Networking Fundamentals

• Network Implementations

• Network Operations

• Network Security

 

N10-008 Dumps Full Questions with Free PDF Questions to Pass: https://www.testsimulate.com/N10-008-study-materials.html