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NEW QUESTION # 15
During a deployment of Prisma Access (Managed by Strata Cloud Manager) for mobile users, a SAML authentication type and authentication profile in the Cloud Identity Engine application is successfully created.
Using this SAML authentication, what is a valid next step to configure authentication for mobile users?

• A. In Strata Cloud Manager, create a new authentication type of "Cloud Identity Engine."
• B. Create a SAML authentication profile in Strata Cloud Manager and link it to the Cloud Identity Engine profile.
• C. Perform a full commit to Strata Cloud Manager so the Cloud Identity Engine profiles get synchronized from the application.
• D. Permit the Cloud Identity Engine service account RBAC access to the mobile user folder in Strata Cloud Manager.

Answer: B

Explanation:
After successfully creating aSAML authentication type and authentication profileinCloud Identity Engine
, the next step is toconfigure a corresponding SAML authentication profile in Strata Cloud Managerand link it to theCloud Identity Engine profile. This ensures thatPrisma Access (Managed by Strata Cloud Manager)can authenticate mobile users using the configured SAML identity provider (IdP), enabling seamless user authentication and access control.

NEW QUESTION # 16
Which feature will fetch user and group information to verify whether a group from the Cloud Identity Engine is present on a security processing node (SPN)?

• A. Prisma Access Locations
• B. Region Activity Insights
• C. User Activity Insights
• D. SASE Health Dashboard

Answer: D

Explanation:
TheSASE Health Dashboardprovides visibility intouser and group synchronizationbetween theCloud Identity Engine and the Security Processing Nodes (SPNs). It allows administrators to verifywhether a group from the Cloud Identity Engine is properly fetched and available on the SPN for policy enforcement.
This feature helps in troubleshooting identity-based access control issues and ensures thatuser group mappings are correctly applied within Prisma Access.

NEW QUESTION # 17
When configuring Remote Browser Isolation (RBI) with Prisma Access (Managed by Strata Cloud Manager), which element is required to define the protected URLs for mobile users?

• A. A Security policy with the target URL categories and set the action to "Isolate"
• B. A DNS Security profile applied to a Security policy with the action of "Isolate" for the target remote browser DNS categories
• C. A URL access management profile with site access set to "Isolate" applied to a Security policy
• D. An RBI profile applied to the URL access management profile

Answer: C

Explanation:
When configuringRemote Browser Isolation (RBI)inPrisma Access (Managed by Strata Cloud Manager) for mobile users, aURL access management profilemust be created with thesite access action set to
"Isolate". This profile is thenapplied to a Security policyto enforce isolation for specific URLs. This ensures thatweb traffic to designated high-risk or untrusted sitesisredirected to a remote, secure browser instance, protecting endpoints from potential web-based threats.

NEW QUESTION # 18
After configuring domain-based split tunnel for zoom.us, how is expected behavior on the client machine confirmed?

• A. Verify zoom.us is resolved by the tunnel assigned DNS server.
• B. Ping zoom.us from the CLI.
• C. Enable dump level logs on GlobalProtect Application.
• D. Verify from the routing table.

Answer: D

Explanation:
After configuringdomain-based split tunnelingforzoom.us, the expected behavior can be confirmed by checking therouting table on the client machine. If split tunneling is correctly configured, the traffic for zoom.usshould be routedoutsidethe GlobalProtect VPN tunnel, while other traffic follows the tunnel path.
Reviewing the routing table ensures thatonly the intended traffic is excluded from the tunnel, confirming that the split tunnel configuration is working as expected.

NEW QUESTION # 19
A company has four branch offices between Canada Central and Canada East which use the same IPSec termination node and have QoS configured with customized bandwidth per site. An engineer wants to onboard a new branch office on the same IPSec termination node.
What is the QoS behavior for the new branch office?

• A. Cannot be added to existing QoS configuration
• B. Automatically distributed to 25% for each site
• C. Automatically distributed to 20% for each site
• D. Unallocated until manually assigned

Answer: D

Explanation:
When onboarding a new branch office to anexisting IPSec termination nodeinPrisma Access, theQoS bandwidth is not automatically assigned. Instead, the newly added branchremains unallocateduntil the administratormanually assigns bandwidthwithin theQoS configuration settings. This ensures that customized bandwidth per siteremains intact and allows forfine-tuned traffic managementbased on business needs.

NEW QUESTION # 20
A user connected to Prisma Access reports that traffic intermittently is denied after matching a Catch-All Deny rule at the bottom and bypassing HIP-based policies. Refreshing VPN connection restores the access.
What are two reasons for this behavior? (Choose two.)

• A. "Collect HIP data' needs to be enabled in the configuration.
• B. Firewall loses user mapping due to missed HIP report checks.
• C. User mapping is learned from sources other than gateway authentication.
• D. HIP-enforced policy is scheduled for certain hours of the day.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
User mapping learned from sources other thangateway authenticationcan cause intermittent access issues if it conflicts with the expected user identity used in HIP-based policies. If the firewall is associatingthe user with an outdated or incorrect mapping, traffic may not match the intended security policies, leading todenials by the Catch-All Deny rule.
If thefirewall loses user mapping due to missed HIP report checks, the user may temporarily lose access to policies that require a validHost Information Profile (HIP)match. When the VPN connection is refreshed, the HIP check is re-initiated, restoring access until the issue repeats.

NEW QUESTION # 21
What is the purpose of embargo rules in Prisma Access?

• A. Blocking traffic from Russia. China, and North Korea only
• B. Allowing traffic only from specific countries
• C. Rate-limiting connections originating from specific countries
• D. Blocking connections from specific countries

Answer: D

Explanation:
Embargo rules inPrisma Accessare designed toblock traffic from specific countriesthat are subject to regulatory or policy-based restrictions. These rules help organizations enforce compliance bypreventing inbound and outbound connectionsto or from regions that may pose security risks or arerestricted due to legal or geopolitical reasons. They are commonly used toalign with government sanctions and corporate security policies.

NEW QUESTION # 22
Which advanced AI-powered functionality does Strata Copilot provide to enhance the capabilities of Prisma Access security teams?

• A. Initial configuration of Prisma Access using a natural language interface
• B. Customized guidance for resolving issues through recommended next steps
• C. Automated remediation of misconfigured security policies
• D. Real-time traffic analysis for automated threat prevention

Answer: B

Explanation:
Strata Copilotenhances the capabilities ofPrisma Access security teamsby providingAI-powered insights and recommendationsto help resolve security issues efficiently. It analyzessecurity events, misconfigurations, and alertsand offerscontextual guidancewithrecommended next stepsfor troubleshooting and improving security posture. This assists teams inquickly identifying and addressing security challengeswithout requiring deep manual investigation.

NEW QUESTION # 23
How can a senior engineer use Strata Cloud Manager (SCM) to ensure that junior engineers are able to create compliant policies while preventing the creation of policies that may result in security gaps?

• A. Configure role-based access controls (RBACs) for all junior engineers to limit them to creating policies in a disabled state, manually review the policies, and enable them using a senior engineer role.
• B. Run a Best Practice Assessment (BPA) at regular intervals and manually revert any policies not meeting company compliance standards.
• C. Use security checks under posture settings and set the action to "deny" for all checks that do not meet the compliance standards.
• D. Configure an auto tagging rule in SCM to trigger a Security policy review workflow based on a security rule tag, then instruct junior engineers to use this tag for all new Security policies.

Answer: C

Explanation:
By usingsecurity checks under posture settingsinStrata Cloud Manager (SCM), the senior engineer can enforcepolicy compliance standardsbyautomatically denyingany security policy that does notalign with best practices. This ensures that junior engineers can create policies while preventing configurations that might introduce security gaps. This proactive approacheliminates manual oversightand enforces compliance at the time of policy creation, reducing risk and ensuring consistent security enforcement.

NEW QUESTION # 24
An engineer configures a Security policy for traffic originating at branch locations in the Remote Networks configuration scope. After committing the configuration and reviewing the logs, the branch traffic is not matching the Security policy.
Which statement explains the branch traffic behavior?

• A. The source zone was configured as "Trust."
• B. The source address was configured with an address object including the branch location prefixes.
• C. The traffic is matching a Security policy in the Prisma Access configuration scope.
• D. The Security policy did not meet best practice standards and was automatically removed.

Answer: C

Explanation:
InPrisma Access, security policies are evaluated based on theirconfiguration scope. If the engineer configured aSecurity policyunder theRemote Networks scope, but traffic from the branch locations is instead matching aSecurity policy under the Prisma Access configuration scope, the intended policy will not take effect. This happens becausePrisma Access evaluates security rules based on the highest-level applicable configuration first, which can override more specific Remote Networks policies.

NEW QUESTION # 25
Which statement applies when enabling multitenancy in Prisma Access (Managed by Panorama)?

• A. A single tenant cannot consist solely of mobile users or solely of remote networks.
• B. Each tenant is allocated its own dedicated Prisma Access instances, with compute resources that are not shared across tenants.
• C. There is flexibility to manage different tenants using separate Panoramas, which allows for better organization and management of the multiple tenants.
• D. Service connection licenses will be assigned only to the first tenant, and these service connections can be shared with the other tenants.

Answer: B

Explanation:
When multitenancy is enabled in Prisma Access (Managed by Panorama), a key characteristic is the isolation of resources between tenants. Palo Alto Networks documentation emphasizes that each tenant operates within its own logically separate Prisma Access environment. This includes dedicated compute instances, ensuring that the performance and security of one tenant are not impacted by the activities of another.
Let's analyze why the other options are incorrect based on official documentation:
A: Service connection licenses will be assigned only to the first tenant, and these service connections can be shared with the other tenants. This statement is incorrect. In a multitenant Prisma Access deployment, licenses are typically managed and allocated per tenant. While the underlying infrastructure might be shared by Palo Alto Networks, the logical resources and often the licensing are segmented for each tenant. Sharing service connections across completely separate tenants would violate the principle of tenant isolation.
B: A single tenant cannot consist solely of mobile users or solely of remote networks. This statement is incorrect. Prisma Access multitenancy allows for flexibility in how tenants are configured. A tenant can be designed to exclusively serve mobile users, exclusively connect remote networks, or a combination of both, depending on the organizational structure and requirements.
D: There is flexibility to manage different tenants using separate Panoramas, which allows for better organization and management of the multiple tenants. While it is possible to have multiple Panorama instances managing different parts of a large infrastructure, when discussing multitenancy within a single Prisma Access instance (as implied by the question "enabling multitenancy in Prisma Access (Managed by Panorama))", all configured tenants are managed by that single Panorama instance. Managing different tenants with separate Panoramas is a different architectural consideration, not a defining characteristic of enabling multitenancy within one Prisma Access deployment managed by a specific Panorama.
Therefore, the defining characteristic of Prisma Access multitenancy (Managed by Panorama) is the allocation of dedicated Prisma Access instances and compute resources for each tenant, ensuring logical separation and resource isolation

NEW QUESTION # 26
A customer is implementing Prisma Access (Managed by Strata Cloud Manager) to connect mobile users, branch locations, and business-to- business (B2B) partners to their data centers.
* The solution must meet these requirements:
* The mobile users must have internet filtering, data center connectivity, and remote site connectivity to the branch locations.
* The branch locations must have internet filtering and data center connectivity.
* The B2B partner connections must only have access to specific data center internally developed applications running on non-standard ports.
* The security team must have access to manage the mobile user and access to branch locations.
* The network team must have access to manage only the partner access.
Which two components can be provisioned to enable data center connectivity over the internet? (Choose two.)

• A. Colo-Connect
• B. SD-WAN Connector
• C. Service connections
• D. ZTNA Connector

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
Service connections enable secure connectivity between Prisma Access and on-premises data centers, allowing mobile users and branch locations to access internal applications. They facilitate seamless integration of internal networks with Prisma Access while maintaining security policies. Colo-Connect provides a dedicated and optimized pathway for traffic between Prisma Access and data centers, ensuring stable performance and reduced latency over the internet. Both components together support secure and efficient data center connectivity while aligning with the customer's access control and filtering requirements.

NEW QUESTION # 27
How can a senior engineer use Strata Cloud Manager (SCM) to ensure that junior engineers are able to create compliant policies while preventing the creation of policies that may result in security gaps?

• A. Configure role-based access controls (RBACs) for all junior engineers to limit them to creating policies in a disabled state, manually review the policies, and enable them using a senior engineer role.
• B. Run a Best Practice Assessment (BPA) at regular intervals and manually revert any policies not meeting company compliance standards.
• C. Use security checks under posture settings and set the action to "deny" for all checks that do not meet the compliance standards.
• D. Configure an auto tagging rule in SCM to trigger a Security policy review workflow based on a security rule tag, then instruct junior engineers to use this tag for all new Security policies.

Answer: C

Explanation:
By usingsecurity checks under posture settingsinStrata Cloud Manager (SCM), the senior engineer can enforcepolicy compliance standardsbyautomatically denyingany security policy that does notalign with best practices. This ensures that junior engineers can create policies while preventing configurations that might introduce security gaps. This proactive approacheliminates manual oversightand enforces compliance at the time of policy creation, reducing risk and ensuring consistent security enforcement.

NEW QUESTION # 28
When a review of devices discovered by IoT Security reveals network routers appearing multiple times with different IP addresses, which configuration will address the issue by showing only unique devices?

• A. Create a custom role to merge devices with the same hostname and operating system.
• B. Add the duplicate entries to the ignore list in IoT Security.
• C. Delete all duplicate devices, keeping only those discovered using their management IP addresses.
• D. Merge individual devices into a single device with multiple interfaces.

Answer: D

Explanation:
When network routers appear multiple times with different IP addresses in IoT Security, it is likely because they have multiple interfaces with separate IPs. Merging these entries into a single device with multiple interfaces ensures that the system correctly identifies each router as a unique entity while maintaining visibility across all its interfaces. This approach prevents unnecessary duplicates, improves asset management, and enhances security monitoring.

NEW QUESTION # 29
How can an engineer use risk score customization in SaaS Security Inline to limit the use of unsanctioned SaaS applications by employees within a Security policy?

• A. Build an application filter using unsanctioned SaaS as the category.
• B. Lower the risk score of sanctioned applications and increase the risk score for unsanctioned applications.
• C. Build an application filter using unsanctioned SaaS as the characteristic.
• D. Increase the risk score for all SaaS applications to automatically block unwanted applications.

Answer: B

Explanation:
SaaS Security Inline allows engineers to customize the risk scores assigned to different SaaS applications based on various factors. By manipulating these risk scores, you can influence how these applications are treated within Security policies.
To limit the use of unsanctioned SaaS applications:
* Lower the risk score of sanctioned applications:This makes them less likely to trigger policies designed to restrict high-risk activities.
* Increase the risk score of unsanctioned applications:This elevates their perceived risk, making them more likely to be caught by Security policies configured to block or limit access based on risk score thresholds.
Then, you would create Security policies that take action (e.g., block access, restrict features) based on these adjusted risk scores. For example, a policy could be configured to block access to any SaaS application with a risk score above a certain threshold, which would primarily target the unsanctioned applications with their inflated scores.
Let's analyze why the other options are incorrect based on official documentation:
* B. Increase the risk score for all SaaS applications to automatically block unwanted applications.
Increasing the risk score forallSaaS applications, including sanctioned ones, would lead to unintended blocking and disruption of legitimate business activities. Risk score customization is intended for differentiation, not a blanket increase.
* C. Build an application filter using unsanctioned SaaS as the category.While creating an application filter based on the "unsanctioned SaaS" category is a valid way to identify these applications, it directly filters based on the category itself, not the risk score. Risk score customization provides a more nuanced approach where you can define thresholds and potentially allow some low- risk activities within unsanctioned applications while blocking higher-risk ones.
* D. Build an application filter using unsanctioned SaaS as the characteristic.Similar to option C, using "unsanctioned SaaS" as a characteristic in an application filter allows you to directly target these applications. However, it doesn't leverage the risk score customization feature to control access based on a graduated level of risk.
Therefore, the most effective way to use risk score customization to limit unsanctioned SaaS application usage is by lowering the risk scores of sanctioned applications and increasing the risk scores of unsanctioned ones, and then building Security policies that act upon these adjusted risk scores.

NEW QUESTION # 30
A malicious user is attempting to connect to a blocked website by crafting a packet using a fake SNI and the correct website in the HTTP host header.
Which option will prevent this form of attack?

• A. Advanced URL Filtering and block the "Malicious Behavior" category
• B. Advanced Threat Prevention option to block "Domain Fronting"
• C. SSL Decryption to "Block sessions on SNI mismatch with Server Certificate (SAN/CN)"
• D. Advanced URL Filtering and block "SNI mismatch with Server Certificate (SAN/CN)"

Answer: C

Explanation:
This option ensures thatSSL Decryptionchecks for mismatches between theServer Name Indication (SNI) fieldin the TLS handshake and theCommon Name (CN) or Subject Alternative Name (SAN) in the server certificate. If a malicious user tries to bypass content filtering by spoofing theSNI while using the real blocked website in the HTTP host header, this setting will detect the discrepancy andblock the session, preventing unauthorized access.

NEW QUESTION # 31
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