Welcome to TestSimulate

Pass Your Next Certification Exam Fast!

Everything you need to prepare, learn & pass your certification exam easily.

365 days free updates. First attempt guaranteed success.

402 Exam Questions for 156-215.81 Updated Versions With Test Engine [Q154-Q178]

Share

402 Exam Questions for 156-215.81 Updated Versions With Test Engine

Pass 156-215.81 Exam with Updated 156-215.81 Exam Dumps PDF 2023


The CheckPoint 156-215.81 exam covers a wide range of topics, including firewalls, VPNs, network security management, secure communication protocols, and advanced security technologies. It is a challenging exam that requires candidates to have a deep understanding of network security concepts and a strong technical background.

 

NEW QUESTION # 154
Security Gateway software blades must be attached to what?

  • A. Management container
  • B. Security Gateway
  • C. Security Gateway container
  • D. Management server

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
Security Gateway software blades must be attached to a Security Gateway container. A Security Gateway container is a logical object that represents a physical or virtual machine that runs the Security Gateway software. A software blade is a modular security feature that can be enabled or disabled eway container. A software blade can provide functions such as firewall, VPN, IPS, anti-virus, anti-bot, application control, URL filtering, etc.References: [Security Gateway Containers], [Software Blades]


NEW QUESTION # 155
Security Zones do no work with what type of defined rule?

  • A. IPS bypass rule
  • B. Application Control rule
  • C. Firewall rule
  • D. Manual NAT rule

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
Security Zones are a feature of Application Control and Identity Awareness that allow you to define groups of network objects based on their level of trust. Security Zones do not work with Manual NAT rules, because Manual NAT rules are applied before the Application Control and Identity Awareness policy is enforced1.
References: Check Point R81 Security Management Administration Guide


NEW QUESTION # 156
What are the three deployment considerations for a secure network?

  • A. Bridge Mode, Remote, and Standalone
  • B. Standalone, Distributed, and Bridge Mode
  • C. Remote, Standalone, and Distributed
  • D. Distributed, Bridge Mode, and Remote

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The three deployment considerations for a secure network are Remote, Standalone, and Distributed3. Remote deployment means that the Security Management Server and Security Gateway are installed on different machines. Standalone deployment means that the Security Management Server and Security Gateway are installed on the same machine. Distributed deployment means that there are multiple Security Gateways managed by one or more Security Management Servers3. Therefore, the correct answer is C.
Remote, Standalone, and Distributed.


NEW QUESTION # 157
Which of the following is NOT a component of a Distinguished Name?

  • A. Common Name
  • B. Organizational Unit
  • C. User container
  • D. Country

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 158
Vanessa is attempting to log into the Gaia Web Portal. She is able to login successfully. Then she tries the same username and password for SmartConsole but gets the message in the screenshot image below. She has checked that the IP address of the Server is correct and the username and password she used to login into Gaia is also correct.

What is the most likely reason?

  • A. Authentication failed because Vanessa's username is not allowed in the new Threat Prevention console update checks even though these checks passed with Gaia.
  • B. SmartConsole Authentication is not allowed for Vanessa until a Super administrator has logged in first and cleared any other administrator sessions.
  • C. Check Point R80 SmartConsole authentication is more secure than in previous versions and Vanessa requires a special authentication key for R80 SmartConsole. Check that the correct key details are used.
  • D. Check Point Management software authentication details are not automatically the same as the Operating System authentication details. Check that she is using the correct details.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The most likely reason for Vanessa's authentication failure is that she is using the wrong details for SmartConsole. Check Point Management software authentication details are not automatically the same as the Operating System authentication details. She needs to use the credentials that were defined during the initial configuration of the Security Management Server, or the ones that were assigned to her by the administrator12. The other options are not valid reasons for this error. References: SmartConsole Login, Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation


NEW QUESTION # 159
What is a reason for manual creation of a NAT rule?

  • A. In R80 all Network Address Translation is done automatically and there is no need for manually defined NAT-rules.
  • B. Network Address Translation of RFC1918-compliant networks is needed to access the Internet.
  • C. The public IP-address is different from the gateway's external IP
  • D. Network Address Translation is desired for some services, but not for others.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 160
Which of the following is an authentication method used for Identity Awareness?

  • A. RSA
  • B. Captive Portal
  • C. SSL
  • D. PKI

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 161
You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

  • A. write mem <filename>
  • B. show config -f <filename>
  • C. save configuration <filename>
  • D. save config -o <filename>

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is D because the command save configuration <filename> stores the Gaia configuration in a file for later reference1. The other commands are not valid in Gaia Clish1. References: Gaia R81.10 Administration Guide


NEW QUESTION # 162
Fill in the blanks: In the Network policy layer, the default action for the Implied last rule is ________ all traffic. However, in the Application Control policy layer, the default action is ________ all traffic.

  • A. Drop; accept
  • B. Accept; redirect
  • C. Accept; drop
  • D. Redirect; drop

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 163
Which of the following is NOT a role of the SmartCenter:

  • A. Status monitoring
  • B. Policy configuration
  • C. Certificate authority
  • D. Address translation

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 164
From the Gaia web interface, which of the following operations CANNOT be performed on a Security Management Server?

  • A. Add a static route
  • B. Open a terminal shell
  • C. View Security Management GUI Clients
  • D. Verify a Security Policy

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
From the Gaia web interface, the operation that CANNOT be performed on a Security Management Server is Verify a Security Policy. This operation can only be done from SmartConsole4. References: Check Point R81 SmartConsole Online Help


NEW QUESTION # 165
Review the rules. Assume domain UDP is enabled in the implied rules.

What happens when a user from the internal network tries to browse to the internet using HTTP? The user:

  • A. is prompted three times before connecting to the Internet successfully.
  • B. can go to the Internet after Telnetting to the client authentication daemon port 259.
  • C. can go to the Internet, without being prompted for authentication.
  • D. can connect to the Internet successfully after being authenticated.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 166
Fill in the blanks: A Security Policy is created in_____, stored in the_____ and Distributed to the various

  • A. Rule base. Security Management Server Security Gateways
  • B. SmartConsole, Security Gateway, Security Management Servers
  • C. The Check Point database. SmartConsole, Security Gateways
  • D. SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateways

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 167
To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher on a Security Gateway:

  • A. Edit /proc/interrupts to include multik set_mode 1 at the bottom of the file, save, and reboot
  • B. Using cpconfig, update the Dynamic Dispatcher value to "full" under the CoreXL menu
  • C. run fw ctl multik set_mode 1 in Expert mode and then reboot
  • D. run fw ctl multik set_mode 9 in Expert mode and then reboot

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 168
What technologies are used to deny or permit network traffic?

  • A. Firewall Blade. URL/Application Blade and IPS
  • B. Stateful Inspection. URL/Application Blade, and Threat Prevention
  • C. Packet Filtenng. Stateful Inspection, and Application Layer Firewall
  • D. Stateful Inspection. Firewall Blade, and URL'Application Blade

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The technologies that are used to deny or permit network traffic are Stateful Inspection, Firewall Blade, and URL/Application Blade. Stateful Inspection is a technology that inspects network traffic at the packet level and maintains the state and context of each connection. Firewall Blade is a software blade that enforces security policy and prevents unauthorized access to protected resources. URL/Application Blade is a software blade that enables administrators to control access to millions of websites and applications based on users, groups, and machines.
References: : Check Point R81 Security Gateway Administration Guide, page 9. : Check Point R81 Security Gateway Administration Guide, page 10. : Check Point R81 Security Gateway Administration Guide, page 12.


NEW QUESTION # 169
A security zone is a group of one or more network interfaces from different centrally managed gateways. What is considered part of the zone?

  • A. The zone is based on the network topology and determined according to where the interface leads to.
  • B. The local directly connected subnet defined by the subnet IP and subnet mask.
  • C. The firewall rule can be configured to include one or more subnets in a zone.
  • D. Security Zones are not supported by Check Point firewalls.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 170
Fill in the blanks: There are ________ types of software containers ________.

  • A. Two; security management and endpoint security
  • B. Three; security management, Security Gateway, and endpoint security
  • C. Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway
  • D. Three; Security gateway, endpoint security, and gateway management

Answer: B

Explanation:
There are three types of Software Containers: Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security.


NEW QUESTION # 171
Which of the following is TRUE about the Check Point Host object?

  • A. Check Point Host has no routing ability even if it has more than one interface installed.
  • B. Check Point Host is capable of having an IP forwarding mechanism.
  • C. Check Point Host can act as a firewall.
  • D. When you upgrade to R80 from R77.30 or earlier versions, Check Point Host objects are converted to gateway objects.

Answer: A

Explanation:
A Check Point host is a host with only one interface, on which Check Point software has been installed, and which is managed by the Security Management server. It is not a routing mechanism and is not capable of IP forwarding.


NEW QUESTION # 172
When configuring Spoof Tracking, which tracking actions can an administrator select to be done when spoofed packets are detected?

  • A. Log, send snmp trap, email
  • B. Log, alert, none
  • C. Drop packet, alert, none
  • D. Log, allow packets, email

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The tracking actions that can be selected when configuring Spoof Tracking are Log, alert, none. Spoof Tracking is a feature that detects packets with spoofed source IP addresses and logs them in SmartView Tracker. The administrator can choose to log only, log and alert, or do nothing when spoofed packets are detected. The other options are not valid tracking actions for Spoof Tracking, as they are either not available or not relevant for this feature.
References: [Spoof Tracking], [Firewall Administration Guide]


NEW QUESTION # 173
Which of the following is NOT a tracking option? (Select three)

  • A. Log
  • B. Partial log
  • C. Network log
  • D. Full log

Answer: B,C,D

Explanation:
Explanation
The options that are not tracking options are Partial log, Network log, and Full log. Tracking options are settings that determine how the Security Gateway handles traffic that matches a rule in the security policy. The valid tracking options are Log, Detailed Log, Extended Log, Alert, Mail, SNMP trap, User Defined Alert, and None. The other options are incorrect. Log is a tracking option that records basic information about the traffic, such as source, destination, service, action, etc. Detailed Log is a tracking option that records additional information about the traffic, such as NAT details, data amount, etc. Extended Log is a tracking option that records even more information about the traffic, such as matched IPS protections, application details, etc.
References: [Logging and Monitoring Administration Guide R80 - Check Point Software]


NEW QUESTION # 174
Which tool is used to enable cluster membership on a Gateway?

  • A. sysconfig
  • B. cpconfig
  • C. SmartUpdate
  • D. SmartConsole

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 175
Vanessa is a Firewall administrator. She wants to test a backup of her company's production Firewall cluster Dallas_GW. She has a lab environment that is identical to her production environment. She decided to restore production backup via SmartConsole in lab environment. Which details she need to fill in System Restore window before she can click OK button and test the backup?

  • A. Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path, Comment, Member
  • B. Server, TFTP, Username, Password, Path, Comment, All Members
  • C. Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path, Comment, All Members
  • D. Server, SCP, Username, Password, Path, Comment, Member

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 176
Which message indicates IKE Phase 2 has completed successfully?

  • A. Quick Mode Complete
  • B. Main Mode Complete
  • C. IKE Mode Complete
  • D. Aggressive Mode Complete

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Quick Mode Complete is the message that indicates IKE Phase 2 has completed successfully2. IKE Phase 2 is also known as Quick Mode or Child SA in IKEv1 and IKEv2 respectively. Aggressive Mode and Main Mode are part of IKE Phase 1, which establishes the IKE SA. IKE Mode is not a valid term for IKE negotiation.
References: How to Analyze IKE Phase 2 VPN Status Messages, IKEv2 Phase 1 (IKE SA) and Phase 2 (Child SA) Message Exchanges, Understand IPsec IKEv1 Protocol


NEW QUESTION # 177
If an administrator wants to restrict access to a network resource only allowing certain users to access it, and only when they are on a specific network what is the best way to accomplish this?

  • A. Use a "New Legacy User at Location", specifying the LDAP user group that the users belong to, at the desired location
  • B. Create a rule allowing only specific source IP addresses access to the target network resource.
  • C. Create an Access Role object, with specific users or user groups specified, and specific networks defined Use this access role as the "Source" of an Access Control rule
  • D. Create an inline layer where the destination is the target network resource Define sub-rules allowing only specific sources to access the target resource

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The best way to restrict access to a network resource only allowing certain users to access it, and only when they are on a specific network, is to create an Access Role object, with specific users or user groups specified, and specific networks defined. Then, use this access role as the "Source" of an Access Control rule. This allows for granular control over network traffic based on user identity and location3.
References: 3: Check Point R81 Security Gateway Administration Guide, page 13.


NEW QUESTION # 178
......


CheckPoint 156-215.81 Exam: What You Need To Know About It?

Checkpoint 156-215.81 exam is designed to gauge the technical knowledge of the security administrator and to test his/her proficiency in the field of internet security. This exam covers all the aspects of internet security, including vulnerabilities, threat detection and prevention, attack analysis and mitigation strategies. CheckPoint 156-215.81 exam is a comprehensive test that tests your knowledge on all aspects of cyber security. This includes vulnerability scanning, malware analysis and analysis of attacks as well as penetration testing techniques.

You need to be aware that this certification is not required by employers but it does show that you have a good understanding of cyber security issues and can handle them effectively if they arise in the workplace. The most important thing about this certification is that it shows your ability to think creatively when dealing with cyber security issues and provide solutions for them rather than just reacting to them after they have occurred. CheckPoint 156-215.81 exam dumps will help you prepare for the exam and make sure you have the knowledge to tackle any issue that may come up during the exam.

 

156-215.81 Exam Dumps - Free Demo & 365 Day Updates: https://www.testsimulate.com/156-215.81-study-materials.html