ANCC Adult Health Clinical Nurse Specialist Certification (ACNS) (ACNS) Free Practice Test

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate serving size of meat or meat substitute on the ADA diet?

A. 2 sardines.

B. 2 whole eggs.

C. 1 oz of skinless chicken breast.

D. 2 egg whites.

Correct Answer: B

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Question 2

Which of the following is considered a Ribonucleotide reductase inhibitor?

A. Estramustine.

B. Mitotane.

C. Bexarotene.

D. Hydroxyurea.

Correct Answer: D

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Question 3

Which of the following would indicate a high level of hematocrit in a female patient?

A. 42 percent

B. 45 percent

C. 35 percent

D. 55 percent

Correct Answer: D

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Question 4

A patient has no functional problems. There is, however, potential for problems later. What type of diagnosis is appropriate?

A. Risk.

B. Wellness.

C. None.

D. Actual.

Correct Answer: A

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Question 5

What is rhythmic movement of the eyes?

A. Nystagmus

B. Wernicke encephalopathy.

C. Cheyne-Stoke.

D. Status epilepticus.

Correct Answer: A

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Question 6

When treating a patient who has an extremely high P.T. level from coumadin (warfarin) usage, the ACNS understands that which of the following is the antidote?

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin C

C. Vitamin K

D. Vitamin D

Correct Answer: C

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Question 7

A patient following a renal diet for kidney disease should limit his phosphorus intake to which of the following?

A. 500 mg per day.

B. 1000 mg per week.

C. 1000 mg per day.

D. 1500 mg per day.

Correct Answer: C

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Question 8

What can hyperprolactinemia be a sign of?

A. Upper motor neurone lesion.

B. Cerebellar disease.

C. Pituitary adenoma.

D. Lower motor neurone lesion.

Correct Answer: C

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Question 9

Which of the following is a correctly written three-part diagnosis?

A. Nutrition imbalance rt excessive intake-to-need aeb increase of 20 pounds.

B. Excessive intake rt nutrition imbalance aeb increase of 20 pounds.

C. Increase of 20 pounds rt excessive intake aeb nutrition imbalance.

D. Nutrition imbalance aeb 20 pound increase rt excessive intake.

Correct Answer: A

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Question 10

The CNS is prescribing a prostaglandin analog for his patient. Of the following, which would the CNS prescribe?

A. Zaditor 0.25%.

B. Travatan 0.004%.

C. Debrox 6.5%.

D. Atropine.

Correct Answer: B

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Question 11

A 29-year-old female is in the clinic with abdominal pain and admits to recent unprotected sex. On examination, the CNS discovers cervical motion tenderness and vaginal discharge. Cultures are obtained and sent to the laboratory. The following would also be necessary:

A. acyclovir (Zovirax) 400 mg PO bid x 7 days

B. penicillin G 2.4 million units IM

C. ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 125 mg IM and azithromycin (Zithromax) 400 mg PO bid x 7 days

D. metronidazole (Flagyl) 500 mg PO bid x 7 days

Correct Answer: C

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Question 12

The CNS is treating a patient who has been prescribed allopurinol for gout. He has facial swelling, and blisters on his mouth nose and eyes. He tells her that he has had a sore throat and fever for a few days. Which of the following conditions would you suspect?

A. meningococcemia

B. rocky mountain spotted fever

C. Stevens-Johnson syndrome

D. shingles

Correct Answer: C

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Question 13

Screening for cancer in the geriatric population includes all of the following recommendations except:

A. prostate cancer

B. colon cancer

C. cervical cancer

D. skin cancer

Correct Answer: C

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